ICAR Entrance Examinations 2024 – AIEEA(PG) & AICE JRF/SRF(Ph.D)

NATIONAL TESTING AGENCY

Vision

The right candidates joining best institutions will give India her demographic dividend.

Mission

To improve equity and quality in education by administering research based valid, reliable, efficient, transparent, fair and international level assessments. The best subject matter experts, psychometricians and IT delivery and security professionals will ensure that the current gaps in existing assessment systems are properly identified and bridged.

Core Values

NTA will create a system which will promote teaching (by teachers), learning (by students) and assessment (by parents and institutions). NTA strongly believes in quality, efficiency, effectiveness, equity and security of assessments. To practice these values, NTA will constantly engage with its stakeholders, viz. students, parents, teachers, experts and partner institutions.

Abbreviations:

AU Agricultural Universities

AMU Aligarh Muslim University

BHU Banaras Hindu University

CAU Central Agricultural University

CIFE Central Institute of Fisheries Education

CU Central University

DARE Department of Agricultural Research and Education

Dr. RPCAU Dr. Rajendra Prasad Central Agricultural University

DU Deemed University

EWS Economically Weaker Section

IARI Indian Agricultural Research Institute

ICAR Indian Council of Agricultural Research

IVRI Indian Veterinary Research Institute

JRF Junior Research Fellowship

NAREES National Agricultural Research, Education and Extension System

NDRI National Dairy Research Institute

OGPA Overall Grade Point Average

PwBD Persons with Benchmark Disability

RLB CAU Rani Lakshmi Bai Central Agricultural University

SAU State Agricultural University

SRF Senior Research Fellowship

IMPORTANT INFORMATION AND DATES AT A GLANCE

(Please refer to Information Bulletin for details)

*Other Backward Classes-Non Creamy Layer as per the central list of Other Backward Classes available on National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC), Government of India website www.ncbc.nic.in Only the candidates falling in this list may mention OBC in the Category Column. State list

OBC candidates who are not in OBC-NCL (Central List) must not choose OBC(NCL).

** Candidates of Remote and Underprivileged States must check theireligibility before applying.

***As per the OM No. 20013/01/2018-BC-II dated January 17, 2019 issued by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment and the OM No. 12-4/2019-U1 dated 17.01.2019 regarding implementation of reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWSs) for admission in Central Educational Institutions or as per Govt. of India’s latest notification to this effect.

2. Candidates can apply for AIEEA (PG)-2024“Online” on the website: https://exams.nta.ac.in/ICAR/

3. The Application Form other than online mode will not be accepted.

4. Only one application is to be submitted by a candidate.

5. Candidates must follow the instructions strictly as given in the Information Bulletin on NTA website. Candidates not complying with the instructions shall be summarily disqualified.

6. Candidates must ensure that e-mail address and Mobile Number provided in the Online Application Form are their own as all information/ communication will be sent by NTA through e- mail on e-mail address or SMS on given Mobile Number only.

7. Instructions for filling Online Application Form:

 Download Information Bulletin and Replica of Application Form. Read these carefully to ensure your eligibility.

 Follow the 3 steps given below to Apply Online:

 Step-1: Apply for Online Registration using unique Email Id and Mobile No.

 Step-2: Fill in the Online Application Form and note down the system generated Application No. Upload scanned images of Candidate’s Photograph (file size: 10 kb - 200 kb), Candidate’s Signature (file size: 4 kb – 30 kb) and Thumb impression (file size: 3 kb-30 kb) in JPG format.

 Step-3:Pay fee using Canara/HDFC Payment Gateway through Debit Card/Credit Card/Net Banking/UPI and keep proof of fee paid. In case the Confirmation Page is not generated after payment of fee then the transaction is cancelled, and amount will be refunded to the candidate’s account. However, the candidate has to make another transaction, in case the Confirmation Page is not generated.

 All the 3 Steps can be done together or in separate sittings.

8. Candidates are advised to keep visiting the NTA website and check their e-mails/SMS regularly for latest updates.

9. Candidate shall appear at their own cost at the Examination Centre on the date and shift indicated on their Admit Card issued by NTA.

10. Any request to change the Examination Centre, Date, Shift and Subject provided on the Admit Card will not be considered under any circumstances.

Note:

1. The final submission of Online Application Form will remain incomplete if Step 3 is not completed. Such forms will stand rejected and no correspondence on this account will be entertained.

2. No request for refund of fee once remitted by the candidate will be entertained by NTA under any circumstances.

3. The entire application process of AIEEA (PG)-2024 is online, including uploading of scanned images, Payment of Fees and Printing of Confirmation Page. Therefore, candidates are not required to send/submit any document(s) including Confirmation Page, Sponsorship Certificate/ Declaration by the Employer of the Candidate (By In-Service Candidate) to NTA/ICAR through Post/ Fax/ E-mail/By Hand.

Candidates are NOT allowed to carry Instrument/ Geometry/ Pencil box, Handbag, Purse, any kind of Paper/ Stationery/Textual material (printed or written material), Eatables and Water (loose or packed), Mobile Phone/ Ear Phone/ Microphone/ Pager, Calculator, DocuPen, Slide Rules, Log Tables, Camera, Tape Recorder, Electronic Watches with facilities of calculator, any metallic item or electronic gadgets/ devices in the Examination Hall/Room.

Diabetic students will be allowed to carry eatables like sugar tablets/fruits (like banana/apple/ orange) and transparent water bottle to the Examination Hall. However, they will not be allowed to carry packed foods like chocolates/candy/sandwich etc.

DISCLAIMER

1. Candidates are advised to read the Information Bulletin carefully and go through the instructions regarding filling of Online Application Form given on AIEEA(PG)-2024 website www.nta.ac.in, https://exams.nta.ac.in/ICAR/before starting online registration.

2. Candidates should ensure that all information entered during the online registration process is correct.

3. Online information provided by candidates like name of candidate, contact/address details, category, PwBD status, educational qualification details, date of birth, etc., during online registration for AIEEA (PG)-2024 will be treated as correct/final and NTA will not entertain, under any circumstances, any request for change in information provided by the candidates.

4. NTA disclaims any liability that may arise to a candidate(s) due to incorrect information provided by the candidate(s) during online registration process.

5. NTA does not edit /modify/alter any information entered by the candidates after completion of application form under any circumstances. Any request for change in information thereafter will not be entertained. Therefore, candidates are advised to exercise utmost caution for filling up correct details in application form.

Usage of Data and Information: NTA can use the data provided by the End User (test taker in this case) for internal purpose(s) including training, research and development, analysis and other permissible purpose(s).

NTA Help desk: 011 – 4075 9000, 011-6922770 / Email ID: icar@nta.ac.in

1.1 About NTA

The Ministry of Education, Government of India (GOI), has established the National Testing Agency (NTA) as an independent autonomous and self-sustained premier testing organization under Society Registration Act, 1860 for conducting efficient, transparent and international standards tests in order to assess the competency of candidates for admissions to premier higher education institutions.

The objectives of NTA, inter-alia, include:

i. To conduct efficient, transparent and international standard tests in order to assess the competency of candidates for admission.

ii. To undertake research on educational, professional and testing system to identify gaps in the Knowledge systems and take steps for bridging them.

iii. To produce and disseminate information and research on education and professional development standards.

1.2 About ICAR

The ICAR is the Apex Body for coordinating, guiding, and managing research and education in agriculture in the entire country under the aegis of Department of Agricultural Research and Education (DARE), Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. Considering the importance of agricultural education, the University Education Commission (1948) chaired by Dr. S. Radhakrishnan recommended the establishment of Rural Universities in the country. As a result, the first State Agricultural University (SAU) was established in 1960 at Pantnagar on the pattern of the Land Grant Colleges of the United States.

The ICAR-AU System of India has 74 Agricultural Universities comprising 63 State Agricultural, Veterinary, Horticultural and Fisheries Universities (SAUs), 4 ICAR-DUs, viz. IARI, IVRI, NDRI and CIFE, 3 Central Agricultural Universities (CAU, Imphal, Dr. RPCAU, Pusa and RLBCAU, Jhansi), 4 Central Universities (CU) having Faculty of Agriculture (BHU, AMU, Viswa Bharati and Nagaland University). The National Agricultural Research, Education and Extension System (NAREES) of India is one of the largest in the world, admitting more than 28000 students at UG level and over 17,500 students at Master’s and Doctoral level annually, in different disciplines of Agricultural and Allied Sciences.

The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) has entrusted the responsibility of conducting All India Competitive Examinations for admission to Bachelor (UG), Masters (PG) & Doctoral (Ph.D.) Courses in Agricultural Universities (AUs) and award of scholarships & fellowships, to the NTA from 2019 onwards.

1.3

AIEEA (PG)-2024

Students for 30% seats in Master degree programmes in AUs are admitted through AIEEA (PG). All (100%) seats of the four ICAR-DUs namely, Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI), Indian Veterinary Research Institute (IVRI), National Dairy Research Institute (NDRI) and Central Institute of Fisheries Education (CIFE) and CAUs, viz. RLBCAU, Jhansi and Dr. RPCAU, Pusa are also filled up through the same examination. Further, not more than 40% candidates from any one state shall be admitted in any agricultural university in a particular subject and category.

ICAR AIEEA (PG)-2024 examination for the academic session 2024-25 will be conducted at 89 cities (Annexure-I) all over the country enabling participation of a large number of candidates seeking admission in Master degree programmes in AUs in different disciplines of Agriculture, Horticulture, Forestry, Veterinary, Animal Sciences, Agricultural Engineering, Community Science (erstwhile Home Science), Fisheries, Dairy Science and other allied sciences. For postgraduate studies, ICARPG Scholarship shall be awarded to limited candidates based on merit in this examination as per their overall merit-rank and seat availability in different disciplines. Also, the eligible admitted students may be awarded NTS(PG).

Candidates declared eligible for registration and choice filling for counselling by ICAR will only be considered for allocation of subject and the Agricultural University. There is no provision of direct nomination for admission through ICAR in any Master degree programme without qualifying in ICAR AIEEA (PG).

Filling of ICAR All India Quota (AIQ) seats in PG programmes will be permitted in Agricultural Universities / Institutes under the ICAR-AU system.

NOTE

 Ragging in the Universities, in any form, has been strictly banned and is a criminal offence. Before applying, all the candidates are advised to study in detail the PGC Regulations on Curbing the Menace of Ragging in Higher Educational Institutions, 2009 (https://www.PGc.ac.in/oldpdf/ragging/gazzetaPG2010.pdf)

 Ragging is totally prohibited in the institutions, and anyone found guilty of ragging and/or abetting ragging, whether actively or passively, or being a part of a conspiracy to promote ragging, is liable to be punished in accordance with these Regulations as well as under the provisions of any penal law for the time being in force.

 Every student studying in the institution and his/her parents/guardians shall be required to provide the specific affidavits in accordance with clauses (d), (e) and (g) of Regulation 6.1 of these Regulations at the time of admission or registration, as the case may be, during each academic year.

 The candidates are advised to contact Anti-Ragging Committee/Cell of the admitting institution for further information in this regard. They may visit ICAR’s Agricultural Education Portal (https://education.icar.gov.in/ to reach the website of the Agricultural University/Institution of their interest for more information.

GENERAL INFORMATION

2.1 Major Subject Groups and Sub-Subjects for Master Degree Programmes

Master Degrees are awarded by Agricultural Universities in 81 Sub-Subjects under 20 Major Subject-Groups (Annexure-III) Candidates should select one Major Subject Group for appearing in the Entrance Examination, based on compatibility with their own subject at graduation (UG) level (Annexure-IV). The sub-subject choices, with in the Major Subject-Group (in which the candidate qualifies the entrance examination), will be available at the time of online counseling.

2.2 University-Wise and Sub Subject–Wise Number of Seats Available for Admission

Tentative number of seats available for admission through ICAR AIEEA (PG)-2024 in different Disciplines /programs of relevant Agricultural Universities under ICAR-AU system for the academic session 2024-25 is given at Annexure-XXII. However, final number of seats will be displayed on ICAR website www.icar.org.in at the time of online counseling. During academic year 2023-24, total number of ICAR AIQ seats available for admission in different PG programs under ICAR AU system was 4629.

2.3 Schedule of AIEEA (PG)-2024

Schedule for important examination related activities has been given below. However, candidates are requested to keep themselves updated about the schedule through NTA and ICAR websites www.nta.ac.in, https://exams.nta.ac.in/ICAR/ and www.icar.org.in.

Schedule for Online Counselling

Will be announced by the ICAR on www.icar.org.in after the declaration of result

*Other Backward Classes-Non Creamy Layer as per the central list of Other Backward Classes available on National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC), Government of India website www.ncbc.nic.in Only the candidates falling in this list may mention OBC in the Category Column. State list OBC candidates who are not in OBC-NCL (Central List) must not choose OBC(NCL).

**CandidatesofRemoteandUnderprivileged Statesmust check theireligibilitybeforeapplying.

***As per the OM No. 20013/01/2018-BC-II dated January 17, 2019 issued by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment and the OM No. 12-4/2019-U1 dated 17.01.2019 regarding implementation of reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWSs) for admission in Central Educational Institutions or as per Govt. of India’s latest notification to this effect.

2.4 Scheme of Examination

The test of AIEEA (PG)-2024 has a single paper of 2 hours duration. Details of the test are given below:

2.5 Syllabus for the Test

The Question Papers for the test shall be based on the syllabus prescribed by the ICAR, which is available at the website: https://icar.org.in/content/icar%E2%80%99s-aice-jrfsrf-pgs-2020examination.

2.6 Subjects

Candidates must ensure their subject or discipline-specific criteria before selecting subject or discipline for admission as given under Section 3.3.

2.7 Conditions for the award of ICAR-PG Scholarship and National Talent Scholarship (PG) 2024

i. ICAR-PG Scholarship will be awarded to meritorious candidates seeking admission in the Agricultural Universities where Master degree programme consists of course and research work. Candidates already pursuing Master degree programme can also apply for fresh admission and compete for ICAR- PG Scholarship provided they have not completed one year of their Master degree programme on the date of examination.

ii. The ICAR- PG Scholarship would be awarded for two years from the date of registration in the Master degree programme. For graduates with 10+2+3, if admitted in IARI and NDRI and awarded ICAR- PG Scholarship, no fellowship would be payable during the first year of their degree program, i.e. while completing remedial courses in the first year. No extension in ICAR- PG Scholarship duration beyond 2 years will be granted. In case the fellowship allotted to a candidateis vacated for any reason, the same will not be allotted/transferred to any other candidate even if there are candidates next to him/her in the merit in same or other subject group. ICAR- PG Scholarship awardees of last year(s), even if in merit, will not be awarded ICAR-PG Scholarship again; however, admission would be granted to them as per their merit rank.

iii. Further, if ICAR- PG Scholarship holder seeks fresh admission, entire amount of scholarship received by him/her shall have to be refunded back to the university with Interest. The scholarship will be at the rate of Rs. 12,640/- per month together with a contingent grant of Rs. 6,000/- per year for procurement of essential chemicals, equipment, books and travel connected with the research work. Not more than 50% of the contingent grant will be spent for purchase of books. All purchases are to be made with the approval of the Major Advisor/Chairman of Student Advisory Committee.

iv. All candidates who have been awarded ICAR-PG Scholarship have to execute a surety Bond of appropriate amount as per University rules and regulations at the time of registration in the University. The AU will ensure that if the candidate leaves before completion of the programme, he /she refunds the scholarship amount drawn by him /her to the Council.

v. National Talent Scholarship (NTS) will also be provided to eligible candidates as per NTS guidelines, which will be intimated at the time of Counselling.

vi. The award of PG scholarship and NTS (PG) shall be governed by the rules and regulations issued and as amended by the Council from time to time in this regard

vii. After the admission, under nocircumstances, the request for change of subject and the university will be entertained from thecandidates/parents.

Note:

a) 5% reservation in PG Scholarship for PwBD category will be horizontal across all categories, i.e. such candidates would draw Scholarship from the GEN/SC/ST category to which they belong. If the PG Scholarship is not available in a particular category to which the PwBD candidate belongs then the samewould be drawn from General Category, if available.

b) From Academic Session 2017-18, the criteria for PG Scholarship (erstwhile JRF) distribution, based on totalnumber of seats

in each subject, has been changed to average number of aspirants actually appeared inthe AIEEA (PG) in the preceding three years. The number of PG Scholarships may vary depending on the number of candidates actually appeared for the examination in a particular Major Subject. It will finally beknown only at the time of counseling.

c) There will be no transfer of ICAR-PG Scholarship even if a candidate awarded PG Scholarship at the timeof counseling leaves the degree programme in between for any reason.

d) There is no reservation of ICAR- PG Scholarship for candidates of Gen-EWS, OBC (NCL) and UPS category.They would be entitled for ICAR- PG Scholarship.

e) ICAR-PG Scholarship & NTS (PG) shall be awarded only after the completion of Online Counseling.

2.8 Reservation Policy

A. SC/ST/OBC-(NCL)/EWS/PwBD in each Category

(i) There would be reservation of seats as well as ICAR-PG Scholarship to the extent of 15% for Scheduled Caste and 7.5% for Scheduled Tribe candidates in different disciplines. The reservation of seats among SC/ST categories is inter-changeable i.e., if sufficient number of candidates are not available to fill up the seats as well as PG Scholarship reserved for ST candidates, these can be filled up from among suitable SC candidates and vice-versa in a given subject as per merit-rank in examination. The original SC/ST certificate in prescribed form (Annexure-XIV) is required to be produced for verification at the time of admission. Depending on merit and choice, they can also take seat from the General/Unreserved Category.

(ii) Reservation for candidates belonging to Central OBC (NCL) category would be available in all Agricultural Universities (including hubs, if any) as notified by the ICAR (File No:Agril. Edn.12(30)/2023-A&P (e-251195) Dated:2nd November 2023) as per the latest Government of India directives applicable at the time of counseling and Hon’ble SC Judgment dated 18th August, 2011 and communication of final seats by these universities at the time of counseling. Candidates claiming admission under this category have to produce a Central OBC (NCL) certificate as per Annexure-XV.

(iii) Reservation of seats for EWS shall be in accordance with the Gazette Notification No. DL(N)/04/0007/2003-19, dated 12th January, 2019, Ministry of Law and Justice (Legislative Department), Govt. of India or any further related Govt. of India directive(s) applicable at the time of counseling. The provision shall be applicable for admission in all Agricultural Universities eligible for ICAR quota seats under the ICAR-AU system and as notified by the ICAR [File No:Agril. Edn. 12(30) /2023-A&P (e-251195) Dated:2nd November 2023]. The certificate for EWS candidates is required as per Annexure-XVI

(iv) Five percent (5%) seats are reserved, horizontally across the categories in different subjects, for Persons with Benchmark Disability (PwBD) candidates suffering from low vision, hearing impairment, locomotors disability or cerebral palsy with appropriate medical certificate having at least 40% disability and found suitable by the Counseling Committee/University official. The candidate applying for admission under this category should submit a copy of the certificate about being PwBD from a Govt. Hospital/Medical Board at the time of admission in allotted University as per given specimen (Annexure–X & XI). The criteria for assessing the degree of handicap could be variable from one subject to another. The decision of the University allotted will be final in this regard. If seat is not available in a particular Category to which the PwBD candidate belongs, then the same

would be drawn from General Category/Unreserved Category depending upon the availability.

B RESERVATION FOR REMOTE AND UNDER PRIVILEGED STATES/UT (UPS)

Two percent (2%) seats under each discipline would be reserved, horizontally, across categories for the candidates of the remote and underprivileged States/UTs namely (i)Andaman & Nicobar Islands, (ii)Arunachal Pradesh,(iii) Dadra and Nagar Haveli, (iv)Daman & Diu, (v)Goa, (vi)Lakshadweep, (vii)Manipur, (viii)Meghalaya, (ix)Mizoram, (x)Nagaland, (xi)Sikkim (xii)Tripura and (xiii) Ladakh; where educational facilities in agriculture and allied science subjects either do not exist or have no SAU(s) and who qualify this examination. UPS candidates will have to produce domicile certificate issued by the competent authority at the time of admission. There will not be any State quota within this quota.

Note:

1. Candidates need to refer to ICAR website (www.icar.org.in) for detailed information regarding reservation of seats and/or allocation of scholarship/fellowships for SC/ST/OBC (NCL)/ PwD/UPS/EWS in each category at the time of online counseling.

2. The responsibility for verification of the genuineness of SC/ST/OBC (NCL)/PwBD/UPS and EWS certificate will be of the concerned AU & ICAR System where the candidate has been granted admission on the basis of counseling.

2.9 Provision for Persons with Benchmark Disability (PwBD) Candidates

Provisions relating to Persons with Disability (PwD):

As per Section 2(t) of the RPwD Act, “Persons with Disability (PwD)” means a person with longterm physical, mental, intellectual, or sensory impairment which, in interaction with barriers, hinders his full and effective participation in society equally with others.

According to Section 2(r) of the RPwD Act, 2016, “persons with benchmark disabilities” means a person with not less than forty percent (40%) of a specified disability where specified disability has not been defined in measurable terms and includes a person with disability where specified disability has been defined in measurable terms, as certified by the certifying authority.

Notes:

Facilities for PwD candidates to appear in the exam

As per the guidelines issued by the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (Divyangjan) under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment issued from time to time on the subject: “Written Examination for Persons with Benchmark Disabilities”, A candidate with one of the benchmark disabilities [as defined in Section 2(r) of RPwD Act, 2016], holding a Disability Certificate in the format prescribed in Annexure-X, is entitled to the following facilities:

a. The facility of Scribe, in case he/she has a physical limitation and a scribe is essential to write the examination on his/her behalf, being so certified in the aforesaid format by a CMO/Civil Surgeon/ Medical Superintendent of a Government Health Care Institution (Annexure-XI).

b. Compensatory time of not less than 20 minutes per hour of examination. If the examination is of 03 hours duration, the compensatory time shall be 01 hour. In case the duration of the examination is less or more than 03 hours, the compensatory time shall be on pro rata basis. The compensatory time will be given to a candidate with benchmark disabilities, whether such candidate uses the facility of Scribe or not.

Services of a Scribe

As per the office memorandum of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment (Reference: F. No. 34-02/2015-DD-III dated August 29, 2018), the PwD candidates who are visually impaired OR dyslexic (severe) OR have a disability in the upper limbs OR have lost fingers/hands thereby preventing them from properly operating the Computer Based Test platform may avail the services of a scribe (amanuensis).

The scribe will help the Candidate in reading the questions and/or keying in the answers as per the directions of the Candidate.

A scribe will NEITHER explain the questions NOR suggest any solutions. PwBD candidates who desire to avail the services of a scribe need to opt for this during the online registration.

A copy of the PwBD certificate must be uploaded at the time of online registration. The formats for the PwBD certificate are given in Annexure-X

It is to be noted that the Scribe will be provided by the National Testing Agency. The candidates is also allowed to bring his/her own scribe in given Annexure-XIX

If it is found at any stage that a candidate has availed the services of a scribe and/or availed the compensatory time, but does not possess the extent of disability that warrants the use of a scribe and/or grant of compensatory time, the candidate will be excluded from the process of evaluation, ranking, counseling, and admission. In case such a candidate has already been admitted to any Institution, the admission of the candidate will be cancelled.

The NTA does not guarantee any change in the category or sub-category (PwBD status) after the submission of the Online Application Form, and in any case, no change will be entertained by NTA after the declaration of NTA Score for the Exam. Therefore, the candidates are advised to fill in the category/sub-category column very carefully.

Note:

1. The minimum degree of disability should be 40% (Benchmark Disability) in order to be eligible for availing reservation for persons with specified disability.

2. The extent of “specified disability” in a person shall be assessed in accordance with the “Guidelines for the purpose of assessing the extent of specified disability in a person included under the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 (49 of 2016)” notified in the Gazette of India by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment [Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (Divyangjan)] on 4 January 2018.

3. No change in the category will be entertained

Candidates must note that the benefit of reservation will be given to them subject to verification of documents. If it is discovered at any stage that a candidate has used a false/fake/incorrect document, or has furnished false, incorrect, or incomplete information, in order to avail the benefit of reservation, then such a candidate shall be excluded from all admission processes. In case such a candidate has already been given admission, the admission shall stand cancelled.

Facilities for PwD candidates who have less than 40% disability and have a limitation in writing and a scribe is essential to write the exam on his/her behalf:

A PwD candidate with less than 40% disability and has a limitation in writing and a scribe is essential to write the exam on his/her behalf, being so certified in the prescribed format (Annexure-XX) by a CMO/Civil Surgeon/ Medical Superintendent of a Govt. Health Care Institution will be provided a scribe by NTA. He is required to state his requirements in his application form. He/she is also permitted to bring his/her own Scribe along with an undertaking in the format given at Annexure-XXI.

The Candidate cannot change the category or sub-category (PwD status) after the submission of the Online Application Form, and in any case, no change will be entertained by NTA after the declaration of NTA scores. Therefore, the candidates are advised to fill the category / sub-category column very carefully.

CHAPTER-3

ELIGIBILTY CRITERIA AND QUALIFICATIONS

3.1 General Eligibility Criteria to appear in AIEEA (PG)-2024

i. In order to appear in ICAR-AIEEA (PG)-2024, an Indian national candidate must ensure that he/she fulfills the eligibility requirements for the examination as well as admission as detailed in the Information Bulletin. Applying for AIEEA (PG)-2024, appearing in the examination and qualifying the same does not necessarily mean acceptance of eligibility. The applicant for a particular Subject must satisfy the eligibility criteria as specified in this Information Bulletin (or its amendments/corrections from time to time).

 No certificates (other than PwBD/Category certificate, as applicable) are required to be uploaded along with the online application at the time of online submission.

 The documents/certificates etc., shall be verified directly at the time of admission in the admitting university. In case the candidate is found not-eligible at any stage, his/her candidature would be summarily rejected and admission will be cancelled.

Filling of ICAR All India Quota (AIQ) seats in PG programmes will be permitted in Agricultural Universities / Institutes under the ICAR-AU system.

ii. Candidate should note that for admission to Master’s degree programmes through entrance examination conducted by NTA, only the candidates having passed graduation with four/six (12+4/10+6 B.Sc. Ag./B.Tech.) / five years (B.V.Sc. & AH) / 5½ years (B.V.Sc. & AH) degree programme will be eligible.

iii. Equivalence of Degrees will be decided by the admitting university only, as per the UGC Public Notice No.F9-3/2016(CPP-II) dated 19th July, 2016.

iv. The candidates having Bachelor’s degree with 3 years’ duration will not be considered for admission through ICAR AIEEA (PG)-2024 in AUs under ICAR-AU system except in few courses at three ICAR-Deemed to be Universities (DUs), viz. IARI, IVRI and NDRI for which the eligibility criteria of the concerned ICAR-DU, including admission of graduates having passedwith 3 years’ degree, would prevail for admission.

v. Further, in case any degree from a particular college/university is not considered for admission by an Agricultural University on account of a particular college/university being derecognized by VCI/UGC, or due to any Court directives (present or future), ICAR will not be responsible for admitting students of that college/university in the Universities not willingto admit such candidates.

vi. The Candidate must have passed Bachelor degree examination securing Overall Grade Point Average (OGPA) of at least 6.60/10.00 in ten-point scale, 5.88/9.00 in nine-point scale, 5.22/8.00 in eight point scale, 4.57/7.00 in seven point scale, 3.92/6.00 in six point- scale, 3.25/5.00 in five-point scale, 2.60/4.00 in four-point scale for General, OBC, UPS and EWS categories whereas for SC/ST/PwBD/Third Gender candidates, the said requirement is an OGPA of at least 5.60/10.00, 4.98/9.00 in nine-point scale, 4.42/8.00 in eight point scale, 3.87/7.00 in seven point scale, 3.32/6.00 in six point- scale, 2.75/5.00, 2.20/4.00,

respectively. In other cases, where grade points are not awarded and only marks are awarded, the candidate must have secured at least 60% marks for General, OBC, UPS and EWS categories whereas for SC/ST/ Third Gender /PwBD categories the requirement is 50% marks. (Please note that equivalence between OGPA and % marks will not be acceptable). There will be no rounding-off of the OGPA/percentage of marks of qualifying examination while deciding the basic eligibility of any candidate for admission e.g. if a candidate obtained 49.99% marks in his/her qualifying examination, then it will not be rounded-off to 50%.

vii. For admission in M.V.Sc., candidates must have completed B.V.Sc. & A.H. with internship on 31/07/2024 or at the time of verification, whichever is earlier, during Counseling in the allotted university.

viii. The candidates must complete the graduate degree in all respects and should have all the degree-completion requirements on 31/07/2024 or at the time of verification, whichever is earlier, during Counseling in the allotted university; failing which they will not be considered for admission and the award of scholarship (if any) Please note that ICAR/University will NOT be held responsible for denial of admission to non- eligible candidates

ix. Candidates reporting for the admission in the allotted university must have final year/final semester result in hand clearly indicating final OGPA/CGPA or final percentage of marks where grade points are not awarded. Candidates will be required to produce Provisional Degree certificate (PDC) /Degree certificate of qualifying graduate examination issued by the university for this purpose. The candidates should note that the university may deny admission in case the PDC is not produced at the time of verification during counselling. No correspondence shall be entertained by the Council in this regard.

x. Since VCI has already issued instructions to Veterinary colleges to finish the Academic year for B.V.Sc. & A.H candidates during the month of December. Therefore, all the State Veterinary Universities (SVUs) and constituent colleges of veterinary sciences under the State Agricultural Universities (SAUs) have to synchronize the start of their Academic Session accordingly. Since the OGPA of such candidates would be available, and internship grades are reflected as satisfactory/unsatisfactory only, they would be deemed provisionally eligible to appear in the ICAR’s AIEEA (PG) examination. However, such candidates will be mandatorily required to produce evidence of completion of graduation degree in all respects including successful completion of Internship training programme on 31/07/2024 or at the time of verification, whichever is earlier, during counselling inthe allotted university.

xi. The admission of the candidates shall be valid only for the Academic Session (2024-24) in which the examination has been conducted by ICAR.

3.2 Instructions for in-service candidates

1. The in-service candidates will qualify for admission only if they come in the overall merit list of their concerned Subject and produce the Sponsorship Certificate/Declaration by their employer (Annexure-XVII) for verification at the time of counseling.

2. The in-service candidates must be working in ICAR Institutes, ICAR-DUs, SAUs, CAUs, CUs having faculty of agriculture, Central Government/State Government Departments dealing in Agriculture and Allied Sectors and Public Sector Undertakings dealing with Agriculture and Allied Sectors (Annexure-XVIII).

3. The in-service candidates qualifying for admission will arrange for study leave/leave of the kind due from their respective organizations themselves and ICAR will not intervene in this regard.

4. In-service candidates must retain the computer generated hard copy of confirmation page of the application along with Sponsorship Certificate, in original, for showing to the university officials in the event of their qualifying the examination and recommendation for admission to the concerned university.

5. In no case, the computer-generated hard copy of confirmation page of the application and Sponsorship Certificate (Declaration by the employer) should be sent by the candidate either to NTA or ICAR.

6. The counselling of in-service candidates seeking admission on seats reserved for the purpose at ICAR-DUs (ICAR-IARI, ICAR-IVRI, ICAR-NDRI and ICAR-CIFE) will be done at respective ICARDU level only. Such candidates are, therefore, advised to remain in touch with the respective ICAR-DU’s website for further details such as no. of seats, eligibility requirements, counselling schedule, etc.

3.3 Eligibility Qualifications for Admission to different Subjects

Candidates must ensure their subject or discipline specific criteria before selecting subject or discipline for admission. Subject/

B.Sc.(10+ 2+3 yrs. system)

1.2 Molecular Biology and Biotechnology

B.Sc. Ag. / B.Sc. (Hons.) in Agriculture / Horticulture / Forestry / Sericulture / Biotechnology / B. Tech. (Biotechnology

2.5 Plant Genetic Resources

03-PHYSICAL SCIENCE

3.1 Agricultural Meteorology

3.2 Soil Science

3.3 Agril. Physics

3.4 Agril. Chemicals

3.5 Organic Farming*

3.6 Environment Science

B.Sc. Ag./Horti./Forestry or B.Sc. (Hons.) Agriculture/ Horticulture / Forestry / B. Tech.(Biotechnology).

B.Sc. Ag./Horti./Forestry or B.Sc. (Hons.) Agriculture/ Horticulture/Forestry.

B.Sc. Ag./Horti. or B.Sc. (Hons.) Agriculture/ Horticulture.

B.Sc. Ag./Horti. or B.Sc. (Hons.) Agriculture / Horticulture.

B.Sc. Ag./Horti./Forestry or B.Sc.(Hons.) Agriculture/ Horticulture/ Forestry.

B.Sc. Ag./Horti./Forestry or B.Sc. (Hons.) Agriculture/ Horticulture/Forestry.

B.Sc.Ag./Horti./Forestry or B.Sc. (Hons.) Agriculture/ Horticulture/Forestry.

4–ENTOMOLOGY AND NEMATOLOGY

4.1 Entomology

4.2Nematology

4.3 Sericulture

5-AGRONOMY

5.1 Agronomy

06-SOCIALSCIENCES

6.1 Agricultural Economics

6.2 Agricultural Extension Education

B.Sc. (Ag.)/Horti./ Forestry/ Sericulture or B.Sc. (Hons.)Agriculture/ Horti./ Forestry /Sericulture.

B.Sc. (Ag.)/ Horticulture / Forestry or B.Sc. (Hons.) Agriculture/ Horticulture/ Forestry.

B.Sc. (Ag.) /Horti./ Forestry/ Sericulture or B.Sc. (Hons.) Agriculture/ Horti./Forestry/ Sericulture.

B.Sc. Ag. or B.Sc. (Hons.) Agriculture.

B.Sc. Agriculture/ Horticulture / Agril. Marketing and Co-operation / Forestry or B.Sc. (Hons.) Agriculture /Horticulture / Agril. Marketing and Cooperation/ Forestry.

B.Sc. Agriculture / Horticulture / Forestry / Sericulture/ B.Sc. (Hons.) Agriculture/ Horticulture / Forestry / Sericultur e/ B.Sc. Agril. Marketing & Co- operation/ B.Sc.(Hons.) Agril. Marketing & Cooperation

07- STATISTICAL SCIENCES

7.1 Agricultural Statistics

B.Sc. Agriculture/ Horti. /Forestry/ Sericulture/Agricultural Marketing & Coop./ B.F.Sc./Veterinary Sciences / B.Tech. in Agril. Engg. or B.Sc. (Hons.) Agriculture/Horti. /Forestry / Sericulture / Agricultural Marketing & Coop./ B.F.Sc./ Veterinary Sciences/ B.Tech. in Agril. Engg.

B.Sc.(10+ 2+3system) IARI

B.Sc.(10+ 2+3system) IARI

B.Sc.(10+ 2+3system) IARI

B.Sc.(10+ 2+3system) IARI

B.Sc.(10+ 2+3system) IARI

B.Sc.(10+ 2+3system) IARI

B.Sc. (10+ 2+3system) IARI

B.Sc. (Ag.)/ B.Sc. (Ag.) Hons/ B.Sc. (Ag. & AH) NDRI

B.Sc. Dairying/B.Sc. Dairying (DT)/ B. Tech.(DT)/B.V.Sc. & AH/ B.Sc. (Animal Sciences) / B.F.Sc.

B.Sc. Dairying / B.Sc.

Dairying (DT)/ B. Tech.(DT)/ B.V.Sc. & AH/ B.Sc. (Animal Sciences) /B.F.Sc./ B.Sc.Agril. Marketing & Co- operation/ B.Sc.(Hons.) Agril. Marketing & Co-operation

B.Sc.(10+2+3system)

7.2 Computer Application

7.3 Bioinformatics

08-HORTICULTURE

8.1Vegetable Science

8.2 Fruit Science

8.3 Post-Harvest Management

8.4 Floriculture and Landscaping

8.5 Plantation Spices, Medicinal& Aromatic Crops

B.Sc. Agriculture/ Horti./Forestry/ Sericulture/Agricultural Marketing & Coop./Veterinary Sciences/B.Tech. in Agril. Engg. or B.Sc. (Hons.) in Agriculture/ Horti./ Forestry /Seri. /Agril. Mktg. & Coop. / Veterinary Sciences / B.Tech.in Agril. Engg.

B.Sc. Agriculture/ Horticulture/ Forestry /B.F.Sc. /B.Sc. (Hons.) Agri. /Horticulture/Forestry/ B.F.Sc. / B.Sc. Agril. Engg / B. Tech.Agril. Engg/B. Tech. (Biotechnology).

B.Sc. Agriculture/ Horticulture or B.Sc. (Hons.) Agriculture/Horticulture.

B.Sc. Agriculture/ Horticulture orB.Sc. (Hons.) Agriculture/ Horticulture.

B.Sc. Agriculture/ Horticulture or B.Sc. (Hons.) Agriculture/ Horticulture.

B.Sc. Agriculture/ Horticulture or B.Sc. (Hons.) Agriculture / Horticulture.

B.Sc. Agriculture/ Horticulture or B.Sc. (Hons.) Agriculture / Horticulture.

09-FORESTRY/AGROFORESTRYANDSILVICULTURE

9.1 Forest Products & Utilization

9.2 Silviculture

B.Sc. Forestry or B.Sc. (Hons.) Forestry.

Forestry or B.Sc. (Hons.) Forestry.

10-AGRICULTURALENGINEERING &TECHNOLOGY

10.1 Soil and Water Conservation Engineering

10.2 Irrigation and Drainage Engineering

10.3 Processing & Food Engineering

10.4 Farm Machinery and Power Engineering

10.5 Renewable EnergyEngineering

B.Sc.(10+2+3system)

11- COMMUNITYSCIENCE

11.1 Food & Nutrition

B.Tech. Agril. Engg./ Mechanical/ Civil/ Elect./ Electronics.

B.Tech. Agril. Engg./ Mechanical/ Civil/ Elect./ Electronics.

B.Tech. Agril. Engg./ Agric. & Food Engg./ Mechanical/ Civil/ Elect./ Electronics/ Food Engg./ Process and Food Engg./ Chemical Engg.

B. Tech. Agril. Engg./Mechanical /Civil /Elect. / Electronics/Production Engg.

B.Tech. Agril. Engg./ Agric.& Food Engg./ Mechanical/ Civil/Elect./ Electronics/Production Engg./ Food Engg./ Process and Food Engg.

B.Sc. Community Science/Home Science or B.Sc. (Hons.) Community Science/ Home Science.

B.Sc.(10+2+3system)

B.V.Sc.&AH/ B.Sc. Dairying/ B.Sc. (Dairying & AH)/ B.Sc. (Anim. Sci.)/ B.Sc. (Ag. & AH)/B.Sc. (Genetics)/B.Sc. (Biotech.) /B.Sc. (10+2+3 system).

system).

16.1 Dairy Microbiology

B.Sc. Dairying (DT/DH)/B.Sc. (DT)/B.Tech. (DT)

16.2 Dairy Chemistry

B.Sc. Dairying (DT/DH)/B.Sc. (DT)/B.Tech.(DT)

17-DAIRY TECHNOLOGY

17.1 Dairy Technology

B.Sc. Dairying/B.Tech. Dairy Technology.

B.Sc. Dairying/ B.Sc. Dairying (Dairy Tech.)/ B. Tech (Dairy Tech./ Biotech.) / B.V.Sc. & AH/

B.Sc. (Hons) Microbiology/ B.Sc. Food Tech., Food Sci./ Biotech./ Food Sci. & Tech./ Industrial Microbiology / Medical Microbiology / Microbial & Food Tech / B.Sc. with Microbiology / Industrial Microbiology. B.Sc. (10+2+3system).

B.Sc. Dairying/B.Sc. Dairying (DT) / B. Tech. (DT)/ B. Tech./ B.Sc. (Food Technology/ Food Sci./Food Sci. & Technol.)/Food Technol. Mgmt./B.V.Sc. & A.H/ B.Sc. Hons. (Chemistry). B.Sc. (10+2+3 system).

B.Sc. Dairying/ B.Sc. Dairying (DT)/ B.Tech. (DT)/B.Sc. Food Tech. / B.Tech. Food Tech. (4 years degree)/B.Sc. (Microbial & Food Tech.) – 4 years degree

NDRI

NDRI

17.2 Dairy Engineering

B.E./B.Tech. (Dairy Engineering). B.Tech (DT)

B.Sc. Dairying/ B.Sc. Dairying (DT)/ B.Tech. (DT)/B.Sc. Food Tech. / B.Tech. Food Tech. (4 years degree)/ B.Tech. Agril. Engg./ B.Sc. (Microbial & Food Tech.) - 4 years degree. NDRI

18- FOOD SCIENCE TECHNOLOGY (M. Sc. Degree will be awarded but M. Tech. Degree at AAU Anand and VNMKV Parbhani)

18.1 Food Processing Technology

18.2 Food Process Engineering (M Tech)*

B.Sc. Agric./Horti./ B.Sc. (Hons.) Agriculture/ Horticulture,/ Food Sci. & Technol./ B.E. (Agril.) / B.Tech. (Agrl. Engg.)/ B. Tech. (Food Tech.), B.Sc. (Hons.) Food Nutrition and Dietetics.

B.Tech. / BE (Food Tech.) B.Tech. (Dairy Tech ), B.Sc.(Food Sci /Food Sci & Tech ), B.Tech. (Food Tech & Mgmt), B.Sc. (Agriculture), B.V.Sc. & AH.

B.Tech. / BE (Food Tech.) B.Tech. (Dairy Tech.), B.Sc.(Food Sci./Food Sci. & Tech.), B.Tech. (Food Tech. & Mgmt), B.Sc. (Agriculture), B.V.Sc. & AH.

19-AGRI BUSINESS MANAGEMENT

19.1. Agri Business Mgmt.

20. Water Science & Technology

20.1 Water Science & Technology

* Subject to seats given by AUs.

Note:

B.Sc. Ag./Horti./Forestry/ Seri./ B.Sc. (Hons.) Agri./Horti./ Agril. Marketing, & Co-operation/ Sericulture / Commercial Agri. Business Mgmt. / Forestry / B.Tech. Agril. Engg. /Vety. Sci./ Dairy Sci./ Fishery Sci./Food Sci. & Tech. / B. Tech. Biotech.

B.Sc. Ag. / B.Sc. (Hons.) in Agriculture / Horticulture / B. Tech. Agril. Engineering.

1. Candidatemust fulfillthe eligibility conditions as indicated above. Theyaregenerally eligiblefor pursuing MasterDegree in the subject in which they have passed their graduation.

2. For admission in Master degree courses under ICAR-AU system, candidate must have four years Bachelor degreein Agriculture, Horticulture, Forestry, Fisheries Science, Home Science etc., after 10+2 or equivalent or 10+6 examination or 5/5½ years B.V.Sc. & A.H.

3. The candidates having passed Bachelor’s degree with 3 years’ duration will not be considered for admission through AIEEA (PG)-2024 in ICARAU system except in few courses at two ICAR-DUs namely IARI, NDRI, for whichthe eligibility criteria of the concerned ICAR-DU, including admission of graduates having passed with 3 years’ degree, would prevail for admission provided above.

4. Master degree programme for graduates from non-agricultural stream would be of three years duration, the firstyear of which will be exclusively for remedial courses, introductory agriculture and orientation programmes.

5. Candidates declared eligible for registration and choice filling for counseling/allotment of seat, may seek admission only during the session for which examination has been conducted. They are not entitled to claim foradmission in other sessions/subsequent years based on this year’s examination.

6. Equivalence of Degrees will be decided by the admitting university only, as per the UGC Public Notice No.F9- 3/2016(CPP-II) dated 19th July, 2016.

3.4 Age Limit

Indian Nationals not below 19 years as on 31.08.2024 are eligible to appear in the examination. No relaxation is permissible regarding the minimum age limit.

REGISTRATION AND APPLICATION PROCESS

NTA is the examination conducting body and its scope is limited to conducting the examination and declaration of the Result /Merit List as per the criteria prescribed. Candidates must note that they shall be bound by the conditions as laid down in this Information Bulletin as well as the and the Statutes, Ordinances, Notifications, Rules, Regulations and Guidelines of the admitting University / Deemed University / Institute, issued from time to time. It is the sole responsibility of the candidate to ensure that he/she fulfills the specified eligibility in toto before filling up the online application form and appearing in the examination.

4.1 Examination Cities for AIEEA (PG)-2024

The Examination Cities where the AIEEA (PG)-2024 will be conducted are given in Annexure- I. While applying, candidates have to select any four cities of their choice for AIEEA (PG)-2024. The efforts will be made to allot city of examination to the candidates in order of the choice opted by them in their application form. However, due to administrative reasons, a different city of nearby area may be allotted.

 NTA reserves the right to allot a candidate to a nearby exam city, other than the one opted by him/her, if need be, depending on administrative exigencies.

 NTA reserves the right to cancel/ merge any exam city/centre, if need be, depending on administrative exigencies.

 The Examination City Centre, once opted, shall not be changed.

The decision of the NTA regarding allotment of Centre, Date and Shift shall be final. No further correspondence or request shall be entertained in such case.

4.2 Applying Online and Submission of Application Form

The online submission of Application Form for AIEEA (PG)-2024, uploading of scanned photograph and signatures may be made at website www.nta.ac.in, https://exams.nta.ac.in/ICAR/. The candidates should complete all the required details while filling up the online form. On submission of details and required fee, a Confirmation Page with Application Number shall be generated. Candidates are required to take print out of Confirmation Page and keep it for reference.

In order to appear in AIEEA (PG)-2024, the candidates are required to apply online as per procedure detailed below. Before filling and submitting the online form, candidates should download the Information Bulletin and Replica of Application Form; and read them carefully. Candidates must follow the instructions strictly as given in the Information Bulletin and on NTA website. Application Forms not complying with the instructions are liable to be rejected.

Candidates must keep following information ready before filling online Application Form:-

 Govt. Identity Details like Aadhaar Number (last 4 digits)/Election Card (EPIC No.) / Passport number / Ration Card Number / Bank Account Number / PAN Number / Other valid Govt. Ids.

 Address for communication, Mobile Number, email id, etc.

 Scanned images of latest Photograph (size of 10 kb to 200 kb) in JPG format only

 Scanned image of Signature (size of 4 kb to 30 kb) in JPG format only

 Scanned image of Thumb impression (Male-Left, Female-Right, size of 3kb to 30 kb) in JPG format only.

 Bank Account details for payment of Fee, for uploading as part of submission of online application.

4.3 Replica of the Application Form

The Replica of the AIEEA (PG)-2024 Application Form is available at Annexure-VII.

4.4 Three Steps to Complete the Application Process

Application Form may be submitted in four simple steps:

Step 1 Register for Online form submission using unique e-mail ID and Mobile No.

Step 2 Fill in the Online Application Form and note down the system generated Application No. Upload scanned images of Candidate’s Photograph (file size: 10 kb - 200 kb) Candidate’s Signature (file size: 4kb – 30kb) and candidate’s thumb Impression (between 3 kb to 30 kb) in JPG format.

Step 3 Pay fee using Canara/HDFC Bank Payment Gateway through Debit Card / Credit Card / Net-Banking / UPI (Annexure-VI) and keep proof of fee paid. In case, the Confirmation Page is not generated after payment of fee then the transaction iscancelled, and amount will be refunded to the candidate’s account. However, the candidate has to make another transaction, in case the Confirmation Page is not generated.

 Download, save and print copies of Confirmation Page after successful remittance of fee and keep copies safely for future reference.

 All the 3 Steps can be done together or in separate sittings

Note:

1. The final submission of Online Application Form will remain incomplete if Step 3 are not completed. Such forms will stand rejected and no correspondence on this account will be entertained.

2. No request for refund of fee once remitted by the candidate will be entertained by NTA under any circumstances.

3. There is no provision to upload any certificate/marks sheet etc., with the application.

4.The entire application process is online. Therefore, candidates are not required to send/submit any document(s) including Confirmation Page to NTA/ICAR through Post/ Fax/E-mail By Hand.

4.5 Application Fee Payable by the Candidates of Various Categories:

General/Unreserved Rs. 1200/-

OBC-NCL*/ UPS**/EWS*** Rs. 1100/-

SC/ ST/ PwBD / Third Gender Rs.625/-

Applicable Service/Processing charges & GST are to be paidby the candidate.

* Other Backward Classes-Non Creamy Layer as per the central list of Other Backward Classes available on National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC), Government of India website www.ncbc.nic.in. Only the candidates falling in this list may mention OBC in the Category Column. State list OBC candidates who are not in OBC-NCL (Central List) mustnot choose OBC(NCL)

** Candidates of Remote and Underprivileged States must check their eligibility.

***As per the OM No. 20013/01/2018-BC-II dated January 17, 2019 issued by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment and the OM No. 12-4/2019-U1 dated 17.01.2019 regarding implementation of reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWSs) for admission in Central Educational Institutions or as per Govt. of India’s latest notification to this effect.

4.6 Method of Fee Payment

After completing Step 2 of Online Application Form, candidates may remit the examination fee (Step 3) by choosing the following options:

1. through Debit/Credit card – Candidates need to check the validity of the Debit / Credit Card, while logging on to website for submitting Application Form. Candidate should enter the information asked for and make the required payment through Debit / Credit Card.

2. through Net Banking - Check the balance in account and keep all credentials ready while logging on to website for submitting Application Form. Candidate should Login with his/her credentials of net banking and make payment through Net Banking.

3. Through UPI.

Note: In case, the fee payment status is not ‘OK’ the candidates are advised as following:

1. If the fee is paid through credit/debit card and status is not OK, it means the transaction is cancelled. Therefore, such candidates have to pay the fee once again and ensure the OK fee status. For cancelled transactions, the amount will, automatically, be refunded to concerned credit/debit card within 15 days of last date of submission of Application Form.

2. Generation of Confirmation Page confirms the final submission of Application Form. If Confirmation Page has not been generated, this means that Application Form has not been submitted successfully.

3. The fee difference on account of change of category by the candidate during correction of particulars in online application form shall have to be paid mandatorily by the candidate.

Generation of Confirmation Page confirms the final submission of Application Form. If Confirmation Page has not been generated, this means that Application Form has not been submitted successfully.

NOTE: The fee difference on account of change of category by the candidate during correction of particulars in online application form shall have to be paid mandatorily by the candidate.

4.7 Instructions to be followed while Applying

 Candidates must be careful while entering their e-mail address and phone number in the Application Form, because this email address and phone number may be used by the NTA and ICAR for future communication.

 The candidate is not required to give any option for Agricultural Universities for admission at the time of filling up online application form. The admission/allotment of seat will be made through online counseling on the basis of Sub-subject opted by him/her at the time registration for counseling and depending upon the availability of seat at his/her merit-rank in the opted Major Subject Group and fulfillment of other eligibility requirements.

 The reservation category being claimed by the candidate must be filled in correctly. Selection should be made as under:

SC - for Scheduled Caste

ST - for Scheduled Tribe

PwD - for Persons with Disability

UPS - for Under Privileged States

EWS - Economically Weaker Section

OBC (NCL) - for Other Backward Classes with Central OBC certificate

GEN - for General/Unreserved category

In case of leaving the reservation category column blank, the candidate would be considered under General Category.

 Candidates need to select their domicile State code carefully (Annexure-II)

 The candidate should refer to the list of Graduation College/Faculty Code and Graduation duration code given at Annexure-V at the time of filling application form.

 The candidates are advised to retain:

(i) Computer generated Confirmation Page of online application

(ii) 3 identical copies of recent passport size colour photographs (with name and date) same as uploaded on the Online Application Form

(iii) Copy of proof of payment of application fee

 If a candidate at any stage is found to have furnished wrong information or deliberately suppressed any material information, his/her candidature/admission will be rejected / cancelled as soon as it comes to the notice of either NTA or ICAR or the university concerned.

 For any future correspondence, the candidates must quote their Application number, the name of examination i.e. AIEEA (PG)-2024 examination and Major Subject Group (with code).

NOTE:- In service candidates must retain the computer generated hard copy of confirmation page of the application along with Sponsorship Certificate (Annexure-XVII), in original, for showing to the university officials in the event of their qualifying the examination and recommendation for admission to the concerned university. In no case, the computer generated hard copy of confirmation page and Sponsorship Certificate shall be sent either to NTA or the ICAR. The in-service candidates, seeking admission to ICAR- DUs, should also see the respective ICAR-DUs website.

CHAPTER-5 ADMIT CARD

5.1 Admit Card for AIEEA (PG)-2024

 The Admit Card is issued provisionally to the candidates, subject to their satisfying the eligibility conditions.

 The candidate has to download the Admit Card from the NTA website as specified in Schedule of AIEEA (PG)-2024 and appear for the Examination at the given Centre strictly as per the Date and Shift (Timing) indicated on the Admit Card.

 No candidate will be allowed to appear at the examination center, on Date and Timings other than that allotted to them in their Admit card.

 The candidates are advised to read the instructions on the Admit Card carefully and follow them during the conduct of the examination.

 In case of any discrepancy in the particulars of the candidate or his/her photograph and signatures shown in the Admit Card and Confirmation Page, the candidate may immediately approach the Help Line between 10:00 am and 5:00 pm. In such cases, candidates would appear in the examination with the already downloaded Admit Card. However, NTA will take necessary action to make correction in the record later.

The Examination City Centre, once opted, shall not be changed. The admit card will be uploaded on NTA website www.nta.ac.in, https://exams.nta.ac.in/ICAR/ . Please check the admit card carefully for your Roll No., Name, Subject, Date of Birth, Gender, Examination Centre Name, City, and Category,etc. In case of any problem related to Admit card, please contact the given helpline numbers between 10:00 am and 5:00 pm.

Note:

a. Candidate may please note that Admit Cards will not be sent by post.

b. In no case, the duplicate Admit Card for AIEEA (PG)-2024 would be issued at the Examination Centres.

c. Candidate must not mutilate the Admit Card or change any entry made therein.

d. Candidates are advised to preserve their Admit Cards in good condition for future reference and verification during Counseling.

e. No Admit Card shall be issued to the candidates whose Applications are found to be incomplete for any reasons (including indistinct/ doubtful photographs/unsigned Applications.

f. Issue of Admit Cards, however, shall not necessarily mean acceptance of eligibility which shall be further scrutinized at subsequent stages of admission process.

CHAPTER-6

CONDUCT OF THE EXAMINATION

6.1 Important Instructions for the Candidates

Candidates MUST bring the following documents on the day of examination at the test centre.

Candidates who will not bring these will not be allowed to appear in the examination.

I. Print copy of Admit Card downloaded from NTA website.

II. One passport size photograph (same as uploaded on the Online Application Form) for pasting on the specific space in the attendance sheet at the Centre during the Examination.

III. Any one of the authorized Govt. photo IDs (original, valid and non-expired), viz. PAN card/ Driving License/ Voter ID/ Passport/ Aadhaar Card (With photograph)/ Aadhaar Enrolment No/ Ration Card.

IV. PwBD certificate issued by the Competent Authority, if claiming the relaxation under PwBD category.

Note: The name on the photo identification must match with the name as shown on the Admit Card.

If the name has been changed due to events such as marriage, candidate must show the relevant document like Marriage Certificate/Divorce/Decree/Legal Name Change Document at the time of examination.

1. The candidates shall report at the Examination Centre at the time indicated on their respective Admit Cards.

2. Registration desk will close 30 minutes prior to commencement of the examination. Candidates shall not be permitted to enter the Examination Centre after the gate closing time indicated on the Admit Card.

3. The candidates are advised to read the instructions on the admit card carefully and follow them during the conduct of the examination.

4. A seat indicating Roll No. will be allotted to each candidate. Candidates should take their seat immediately after opening of the examination hall. If the candidates do not report in time due to any reason i.e. traffic jam, train/bus delay etc., they are likely to miss some of the general instructions to be announced in the Examination Rooms/Halls. The NTA shall not be responsible for any delay.

5. The candidate must show, on demand, the Admit Card downloaded/printed from the NTA website for admission in the examination room/hall. The Test Centre Staff on duty is authorized to verify the identity of candidates and may take steps to verify and confirm the identify credentials. Candidates are requested to extend their full cooperation. A candidate who does not possess the valid Admit Card shall not be permitted for the examination under any circumstances by the Centre Superintendent Candidates should find and sit on their allocated seat only. Any candidate found to have changed room/hall or the seat on his/her own other than allotted would be considered as a case of Unfair means and the candidature shall be cancelled and no plea would be accepted.

6. The candidate should ensure that the question paper available on the computer is as per the Subject opted by him/her in the application form and as indicated on the Admit Card.

In case, the Subject displayed on the computer is different from the one opted by him/her, the same must be immediately brought to the notice of the Invigilator concerned.

7. Candidates are not allowed to carry any baggage inside the Examination Centre. NTA will not be responsible for any belongings stolen or lost at the premises.

8. Candidate shall appear, at their own cost, at the Centre on Date and shift as indicated in their Admit Card issued by the NTA. Under no circumstances the choice of cities for centre and shift provided in the Admit Card shall be changed.

9. No candidate, without the special permission of the Centre Superintendent or the Invigilator concerned, will leave his/her seat or Examination Room/Hall until the full duration of the paper is over. Candidates must follow the instructions strictly as instructed by the Centre Superintendent/Invigilators. Candidates should not leave the room/hall without handing over their rough sheets to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.

10. Candidates should not be in possession of any material listed in the list of prohibitedmaterial.

11. All calculations/writing work are to be done only in the rough sheet provided at the centre in the examination Room/Hall and on completion of the test candidates must hand over the rough sheets to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.

12. The candidates must sign and paste the photograph on the Attendance Sheet at the appropriate place.

13. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the NTA with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per rules.

6.2 Prohibited Materials

Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual material, Calculators, Docu Pen, Slide Rules, Log Tables and Electronic Watches with facilities of calculator, printed or written material, bitsof papers, mobile phone, Blue-tooth devices, pager or any other electronic gadget/ device etc.

 The candidates are prohibited to bring any kind of electronic gadgets/device in the examination room/hall.

 If any candidate is in possession of any of the above item, the same will be seized, his/her candidature treated as unfair means and this will lead to cancellation of his/her current examination besides debarring him/her from appearing in future examination(s).

 Smoking, chewing gutka, spitting etc. in the Examination Room/Hall is strictly prohibited.

 Instrument/Geometry/Pencil box, Handbag, Purse, Any kind of Paper/ Stationery, Eatables/snacks and Tea/coffee/cold drinks/Water (loose or packed), Mobile Phone/ Ear Phone/Microphone/Pager, Calculator, Camera, Tape Recorder, any metallic item or electronic gadgets etc. are NOT allowed in the examination Room/Hall.

Diabetic students will be allowed to carry eatables like sugar tablets/fruits (like banana/ apple/orange) and transparent water bottle to the examination hall. However, they will not be allowed to carry packed foods like chocolate/candy/sandwich etc.

6.3

Unfair Means

Definition:

Unfair Means practice is an activity that allows a candidate to gain an unfair advantage over other candidates.

It includes, but is not limited to:

a) Being in possession of any item or article which has been prohibited or can be used for unfair practices including any stationery item, communication device, accessories, eatable items, ornaments, or any other material or information relevant or not relevant to the examination in the paper concerned;

b) Using someone to write examination (impersonation) or preparing material for copying;

c) Breaching examination rules or any direction issued by NTA in connection with the exam from time to time;

d) Assisting other candidates to engage in malpractices, giving or receiving assistance of any kind directly or indirectly or attempting to do so;

e) Contacting or communicating or trying to do so with any person, other than the Examination Staff, during the examination time in the Examination Centre;

f) Threatening any of the officials connected with the conduct of the examination or threatening any of the candidates;

g) Using or attempting to use any other undesirable method or means in connection with the examination;

h) Manipulation and fabrication of online documents viz. Admit Card, Rank Letter, Self Declaration, etc.;

i) Providing false/fake/incorrect document, or furnishing false, incorrect, or incomplete information, in order to avail the benefit of reservation;

j) Forceful entry in /exit from Examination Centre/Hall;

k) Use or attempted use of any electronic device after entering the Examination Centre;

l) Affixing/uploading of wrong/morphed photographs/signatures on the Application Form/Admit Card/Pro forma;

m) Creating obstacles in smooth and fair conduct of the examination.

n) Availing of the services of a scribe and/or compensatory time, without possessing the extent of disability that warrants the use of a scribe and/or grant of compensatory time;

o) Any other malpractices declared as Unfair Means by the NTA.

Punishment for using Unfair Means practices

During the course of, before, or after the examination if a candidate indulges in any of the above or similar practices, his/her candidature will be cancelled and he/shall will be liable to be debarred from taking examinationconducted by NTA either permanently or for a specified period according to the nature of the offence.

CHAPTER-7

PROCEDURE OF DECLARATION OF RESULT

7.1 Display of Question Paper and Provisional Answer key for Challenges

 The NTA will display provisional Answer Keys of the questions along with the question papers attempted by the respective Candidates on the NTA website www.nta.ac.in, https://exams.nta.ac.in/ICAR/ to provide an opportunity to the interested candidates to challenge theAnswer Key (if any). The Answer Keys are likely to be displayed for two to three days.

 The Candidates will be given an opportunity to make a challenge online against the Answer Key on payment of a non-refundable fee of Rs.200/- per question challenged as processing fees.

 The NTA will also display the recorded responses of all the candidates on the NTA website prior to declaration of result. The recorded responses are likely to be displayed for three days.

 The NTA’s decision on the challenges shall be final and the Result will be declared on the basis of Final Answer Keys as settled by the concerned Subject Experts. No grievance / representation with regard to Answer Key(s) after declaration of result on website will be entertained.

7.2 NTA process of Error and Scoring related Exception Handling

As per AIEEA-PG specifications, all questions in the test papers are MCQs with only one correct answer. If any anomaly or discrepancy is found during key verification, it shall be addressed in the following manner:

1. If more than one option are found to be correct post challenge or during key verification –Marks to be awarded to only those students who have marked any of the correct option.

2. If all options are found to be correct – Full marks to be awarded to all students.

3. If none of the options is correct/Question is found to be wrong/invalid – Question to be dropped and full marks to be awarded to all students.

7.3 Percentile score and normalization procedure:

If the AIEEA (PG)-2024 is conducted in more than one Session/Shifts, the following procedure will be followed in ensuring equivalency in the difficulty level: -

(i) Raw marks obtained by the candidates in different shifts/sessions will be converted to NTA Score (percentile).

(ii) In case a subject test is conducted in multi-shifts, NTA Score will be calculated corresponding to the raw marks obtained by a candidate. The calculated NTA Score for the Raw Marks for all the shifts/sessions will be merged for further processing for deciding the allocation.

(iii) Candidates scoring above zero marks / percentile would be eligible to register for counseling, as there is no cut off for any of the category.

(iv) The detailed procedure on NTA Score being adopted is available on Annexure-IX under Normalization procedure based on Percentile Score.

7.4 Declaration of Result

 Overall Merit/Rank List will be prepared by ICAR separately for every major Subject. In the event of candidates getting equal marks in the Entrance Examination, relative/inter se Merit will be determined inthe followingorder:

(i) the candidate scoring less negative marks will be rated higher in merit.

(ii) the candidate higher in age would be rated higher in merit.

(iii) the candidate with higher score in %age/CGPA in Class XII examination would be rated higher in merit.

 The Result of the AIEEA (PG)-2024 will be displayed to the candidates on NTA website: https://exams.nta.ac.in/ICAR/, www.nta.ac.in.

 The result of the entrance examination would be available in terms of overall merit-rank obtained by the candidate declared eligible for registration and choice filling for counseling in his/her subject.

 No separate intimation about non-selection in AIEEA (PG)-2024 Examination, nor marks obtained there in, will be sent to the candidate and no correspondence (Letter/Fax/e-mail etc.) in this regard will be entertained.

All announcements related to the conduct of entrance examination including, issue of examination notification, Admit card information, examination result, schedule of online counseling, general notices, etc., would be posted and available on the NTA website www.nta.ac.in, https://exams.nta.ac.in/ICAR/.The candidates are advised to be vigilant about the announcements on the NTA website as the NTA would not be held responsible for nonreceipt of any information/ letter by post or otherwise.

7.5 No Re-checking or Re-evaluation

No representation for re-evaluation/re-checking of answer scripts shall be entertained after the declaration of results, as candidates are given opportunity to evaluate their own recorded responses and to submit challenge to discrepancy (if any), before the finalization of final answer keys and declaration of the result.

7.6 Counselling

Candidates declared eligible for registration and choice filling for online counselling by ICAR will only be considered for allocation of subject and the Agricultural University (Annexure XIII). The schedule for online counseling will be notified separately on ICAR website (www.icar.org.in) after declaration of result. The admission and scholarship would be granted only when the candidate seeks admission through counseling conducted by ICAR AIEEA (PG)-2024 shall be awarded only after the completion of Online Counseling.

Miscellaneous Provisions

8.1 Common Services Centres/Facilitation Centres

Candidate(s), who are not well conversant to submit the online application due to various constraints, can use the services of Common Services Centre, Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology, Government of India under the Digital India initiatives of Hon’ble Prime Minister. The Common Services Centre (CSC) scheme is a part of the ambitious national eGovernance Plan (NeGP) of Government of India and is managed at each village panchayat level by a Village level Entrepreneur (VLE).

There is more than 1.5Lakh Common Services Centres (CSC) across the country which will provide the desired support to candidates from urban as well as rural areas in online submission of application form and payment of fee through e-wallet. The list of the Common Services Centre is available on website: www.csc.gov.in.

8.2 Query Redressal System

National Testing Agency (NTA) has established a Query Redressal System (QRS), an online webenabled system developed by NTA.

 QRS is the platform based on web technology which primarily aims to enable submission of queries/grievances by the Registered Candidate(s) of ICAR 2024 Examination with (24x7) facility for speedy and favourable redressal of the queries/grievances.

 A Unique Registration Number will be generated for tracking the status of the queries/grievances.

The Registered Candidate(s) are advised to use the online facility for speedy and favourable response before mailing their queries on the official email id of ICAR i.e. icar@nta.ac.in

8.3 Correspondence with NTA

All the correspondence should preferably be addressed by e-mail. The email query shall be addressed only if it is not anonymous and contains the name, postal address and contact number of the sender. An email containing vague or general queries and other queries as contained in the Information Bulletin shall not be entertained. Queries shall not be entertained from person claiming to be representatives, associates or officiates of the applicant candidate. The following information shall not be revealed by phone or email:

a. Internal documentation/status.

b. Internal decision-making process of NTA. Any claim/counter claim thereof.

c. Dates & venue of internal meetings or name of the staff/officers dealing with it.

d. Any information which in the opinion of NTA cannot be revealed.

8.4 Weeding Out Rules

The record of AIEEA (PG)-2024 Examination at NTA would be available up to 90 days from the Date of declaration of Result of the Examination. The same would be weeded out thereafter.

8.5 Legal Jurisdiction

All disputes pertaining to the conduct of AIEEA (PG)-2024 Examination including Results shall fall within the jurisdiction of Delhi only. Further, any legal question arising out of the Examination shall be entertained only when raised within 30 days from the declaration of result.

The Director (Administration) of the NTA shall be the official by whose designation the NTA may sue or be sued.

8.6 RTI

Information uploaded on the website shall not be provided to the candidate or any other person under R.T.I. Act, 2005. The information uploaded on the website shall remain for a specific period only. Therefore, the candidates are advised to download the uploaded information and keep with them for future. In due course of examination or in midway of process, neither any application under Right to Information Act, 2005 shall be entertained nor information will be provided.

Note:

1. The exact name/location of Examination venue in the Examination city centre will be notified later along with the Roll Number in accordance with the Application Number and Date of Birth and shall be available on NTA website www.nta.ac.in, https://exams.nta.ac.in/ICAR/

2. NTA reserves the right to allot a candidate to near by exam city, other than the one opted by him/her, if need be, depending on administrative exigencies.

3. NTA reserves the right to cancel/ merge any exam city/centre if need be, depending on administrative exigencies.

4. The Examination City Centre, once opted, shall not be changed.

DOMICILE STATE/UTs CODES

*Subject to seats given by AUs.

NOTE:

1. The exact title/nomenclature of the degree programme might vary from one university to another. Candidates are advised to enquire the nomenclature of degree programme/degree to be awarded (M.Sc./M.Tech./M.V.Sc./MBA) from the Registrarof university concerned (for contact details, please refer Annexure-XIII) at the time of counseling/while seeking admission.

List of Graduation College/Faculty

NOTE:

1. For admission in Master degree courses under ICAR-AU system, candidate must have four years Bachelor degree in Agriculture, Horticulture, Forestry, Fisheries Science, Home Science, etc., after 10+2 or equivalent or 10+6 examination or five/ 5½ years B.V.Sc.&A.H.

2. Further, in case any degree from a particular college/university is not considered for admission by an Agricultural University or any particular college/university on account of de-recognition by VCI/UGC or due to any Court directives (present or future), ICAR will not be responsible for admitting students of that college/university in the Universities not willing to admit such candidates.

Mode of Payment of Fee/ Service Provider and Bank Service Charges

After completing Step-2 of Online Application Form, candidates may remit the examination fee (Step -3) by choosing the following options:

Online Mode i.e. Debit/ Credit Card, Net Banking and Unified Payment Interface (UPI) in HDFC Bank or Canara Bank:

 Check the validity of the Debit/ Credit Card and keep it ready with you while logging on to website for submitting applicationform.Candidateshould entertheinformation asked forand makepayment through Debit/ Credit Card.

 through Net Banking, check the balance in your account and keep all credentials ready with you while logging on to website for submitting application form. Candidate should Login with his/her credentials of net banking and make payment through Net Banking.

Please select any Mode of Payment/Service Provider (Service/Processing charges per transaction& GST (applicable @ 18 %) to be paid by the candidate):

Note: In case, the fee payment status is not ‘OK’ the candidates are advised as following:-

(i) If the fee is paid through credit/debit card and status is not OK, it means the transaction is cancelled. Therefore, such candidates have to pay the fee once again and ensure the OK fee status.

(ii) For cancelled transactions, the amount will, automatically, be refunded by the concerned Bank to concerned credit/debit card within 15 days of last date of submission of Application Form.

2. Help lines:

(a) If Paying through Canara Bank:

(b) If Paying through HDFC Bank:

(c) NTA Helpdesk Contact details (incase the payment related issues are not resolved through the abovementioned Helplines of the concerned Bank/Payment Gateway Integrator):

Email: icar@nta.ac.in

Phone No.:011-40759000, 011-69227700

Computer Based Test (CBT)

A CBT requires candidate to sit in front of a computer terminal (node) allocated to him/her by the Exam Centre against his/her Roll number and Admit card. After logging the candidate will get detailed instructions for the examination. At the designated time of start of examination, the candidate will be able to proceed and see the questions on the computer screen using the computer mouse. Candidate will have the option to change / modify/ edit / answers already entered any time during the examination.

Procedure for appearing in Computer Based Test (CBT):

(Sample/mock test will be available on NTA website: www.nta.ac.in for hands on practice)

(a) A computer terminal (node) indicating roll number will be allocated to each candidate. The Candidate has to sit before his /her allocated computer only. Any candidate found to have changed room/hall or the computer on their own other than the one allotted would lead to cancellation of candidature and no plea in this regard would be entertained.

(b) For login, the candidate will have to enter login-ID and password. The computer terminal allotted to the candidate will display WELCOME login screen, Candidate’s photograph and subject opted by the candidate.

Candidate Login Page

Candidate Welcome Screen

(c) After login, the candidate shall be able to see the detailed instructions for the examination. Candidate is advised to go through the instructions carefully regarding the type of questions and marking scheme. At the designated timeof start of the examination, the candidate will be able to proceed and see the questions on the computer screen.

General Instruction Page

General Instructions:

Please read the Instructions carefully

1. Total duration of Examination is 60 minutes.

2. The clock will be set at the server. The countdown timer in the top right corner of screen will display the remaining timeavailable for you to complete the examination. When the timer reaches zero, the Examination will end by itself. You will not be required to end or submit your examination.

3. The Questions Palette displayed on the right side of screen will show the status of each question using one of the following symbols:

You have not visited the question yet. You have not answered the question.

You have answered the question.

You have NOT answered the question but have marked the question for review.

The question(s) "Answered and Marked for Review" will be considered for evaluation.

4. You can click on the ">" arrow which appears to the left of question palette to collapse the question palette thereby maximizing the question window. To view the question palette again, you can click on "<" which appears on the right side of question window.

5. You can click on your "Profile" image on top right corner of your screen to change the language during the exam for entire question paper. On clicking of Profile image you will get a drop-down to change the question content to the desired language.

Navigating a Question:

7. To answer a question, do the following:

6. You can click on to navigate tothe bottom and to navigate to top of the question are, without scrolling.

a. Click on the question number in the Question Palette at the right of your screen to go to that numbered question directly. Note that using this option does NOT save your answer to the current question.

b. Click on Save & Next to save your answer for the current question and then go to the next question.

c. Click on Mark for Review & Next to save your answer for the current question, mark it for review, and then go to the next question.

Answering a Question:

8. Procedure for answering a multiple-choice type question:

a. To select you answer, click on the button of one of the options.

b. To deselect your chosen answer, click on the button of the chosen option again or click on the Clear Response button

c. To change your chosen answer, click on the button of another option

d. To save your answer, you MUST click on the Save & Next button.

e. To mark the question for review, click on the Mark for Review & Next button.

9. To change your answer to a question that has already been answered, first select that question for answering and then follow the procedure for answering that type of question.

Navigating through Sections:

10. Sections in this question paper are displayed on the top bar of the screen. Questions in a section can be viewed by click on the section name. The section you are currently viewing is highlighted.

11. After click the Save & Next button on the last question for a section, you will automatically be taken to the first question of the next section.

12. You can shuffle between sections and questions anything during the Examination as per your convenience only during the time stipulated.

13. Candidate can view the corresponding section summery as part of the legend that appears in every section above the question palette.

The keyboard attached to the computer, if any, will be disabled during the entire duration of the examination. Depending on the type of question, the answers to questions can either be entered by clicking on the virtual on-screen keyboard (numeric or otherwise) using the computer mouse or by clicking the chosen option(s) using the computer mouse. Candidates will have the option to change/modify answers already entered anytime during the entire duration of the examination.

In case the computer/mouse allotted to any candidate malfunctions anytime during the test, he/she will be immediately allotted another computer system and the time lost due to this will be adjusted in the server so as to give the candidate the full allotted time.

The on-screen computer clock counter of every candidate will be set at the server. The countdown timer in the top right side of computer screen will display the time remaining (in minutes) available for the candidate to complete the examination. When the timer reaches zero, the Examination will end by itself. Candidate will not be required to end or submit the examination.

(d) The Question Palette displayed on the right side of screen will show the status of each question using one of the following symbols:

The question(s) “Answered and Marked for Review” status for a question indicates that candidate would like to have a relook at that question again. A candidate has the option ofanswering a question and simultaneously “Marked for Review”, these answers will be considered for evaluation. However, if a candidate has simply put “Marked for Review”for a question without answering it, the corresponding question marked for review without an answer will not be considered for evaluation. It may be noted that a candidate can return to any “Marked for Review” question any time during the Examination by clicking on the corresponding question number icon displayed on the Question Palette of the corresponding section.

(e) Candidate can click on the “>” arrow which appears to the left of question palette to collapse the question palette thereby maximizing the question viewing window. To view the question palette again, candidate can click on “<” which appears on the right side of question window.

(f) Candidate can click on to navigate to the bottom and to navigate to the top of the question area, without scrolling. Using the computer mouse the candidate can scroll up and down the question viewing area for viewing the entire question.

(g) The full paper can be viewed by clicking the “Question Paper” icon on the top right corner of the screen.

(h) Blank Sheets for doing rough work/calculations shall be provided to the candidates. The Blanks Sheets would have a Header page for the candidates to write down his/her Name and Roll Number. All calculations/writing work are to be done only in the Blank Sheets provided at the centre in the Examination Room/Hall and on completion of the test candidates must hand over the rough sheets to the invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.

(i) Navigating a Question To navigate between questions within a Paper, candidate needs to do the following:

(a) Click on the question number in the Question Palette at the right of the screen to go to that numbered question directly. Note that using this option does NOT save the answer to the currently displayed question.

(b) Click on “Save & Next” to save the answer of any question. Clicking on “Save & Next” will save the answer for the current question and the next question will be displayed on the candidate’s computer screen.

(c) Click on “Mark for Review & Next” to mark a question for review (without answering it) and proceed to the next question.

(j) Answering a Question

To navigate between questions within a Paper, candidate needs to do the following:

(i) Procedure for answering a multiple-choice type question:

(a) To select the option(s), click on the corresponding button(s) of the option(s).

(b) To deselect the chosen answer, click on the button of the chosen option again or click on the “Clear Response” button.

(c) To save the answer, the candidate MUST click on the “Save & Next” button.

(d) To mark the question for review (without answering it), click on the “Mark for Review & Next” button.

(k) Navigating through sections:

(i) Sections in the question paper are displayed on the top bar of the screen. Questions in a section can be viewed by clicking on the section name. The section in which candidate is currently viewing will be highlighted.

(ii) After clicking the “Save & Next” button on the last question for a section, candidate will automatically be taken to the first question of the next section.

(iii) Candidate can shuffle between sections and questions within sections anytime during the Examination as per the convenience only during the time stipulated.

(iv) Candidate can view the corresponding section summary as part of the legend that appears in every section above the question palette.

Question Panel

Respective Option

Navigation Panel

Question Palette

(l) Procedure for answering questions that require inputs from on-screen virtual key board (numeric or otherwise):

(a) Candidate will have to use the on-screen virtual keyboard (that would be displayed just below the question statement of these types of questions) and the attached computer mouse to enter his/her answer in the space provided for answer.

On Screen Virtual Keyboard

(b) The answer can be changed, if required, anytime during the test. To save the answer, the candidate MUST click on the “Save & Next” button.

(c) To mark the question for review (without answering it), click on the “Mark for Review & Next” button.

Candidate will have the option to change previously saved answer of any question, anytime during the entire duration of the test. To change the answer to a question that has already been answered, first select the corresponding question from the Question Palette, then click on “Clear Response” to clear the previously entered answer and subsequently follow the procedure for answering that type of question.

(m) ROUGH WORK:

All calculations/writing work are to be done only in the rough sheet provided at the Centre in the Examination Room/Hall and on completion of the test candidates must hand over the rough sheets to the invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.

Procedure

National Testing Agency (NTA)

to be adopted for compilation of NTA scores for multi session Papers

(Normalizationprocedure based on PERCENTILE SCORE)

NTA will be conducting examinations on multiple dates, generally in two sessions per day. The candidates will be given different sets of questions per session and it is quite possible that in spite of all efforts of maintaining equivalence among variousquestionpapers,thedifficulty levelofthesequestionpapersadministered indifferent sessions may not beexactlythe same. Some of the candidates may end up attempting a relatively tougher set of questions when compared to othersets. The candidates who attempt the comparatively tougher examination are likely to get lower marks as compared to those who attempt the easier one. In order to overcome such a situation, “Normalization procedure based on Percentile Score” will be used for ensuring that candidates are neither benefitted nor disadvantaged due to the difficulty level of the examination. With the objective of ensuring that a candidate’s true merit is identified, and that a level playing fieldis created in the above context, the Normalization Procedure, set out below shall be adopted, for compiling the NTA scores for multi session papers.

The process of Normalization is an established practice for comparing candidate scores across multi session papers and is similar to those being adopted in other large educational selection tests conducted in India. For normalization across sections, NTA shall use the percentile equivalence.

Percentile Scores: Percentile scores are scores based on the relative performance of all those who appear for the examination. Basically, the marks obtained are transformed into a scale ranging from 100 to 0 for each session of examinees.

The Percentile Score indicates the percentage of candidates that have scored EQUAL TO OR BELOW (same or lower raw scores) that particular Percentile in that examination. Therefore, the topper (highest score) of each session will get the same Percentile of 100 which is desirable. The marks obtained in between the highest and lowest scores are also converted to appropriate Percentiles.

The Percentile score will be the Normalized Score for the examination (instead of the raw marks of the candidate) and shall be used for preparation of the merit lists.

The Percentile Scores will be calculated up to 7 decimal places to avoid bunching effect and reduce ties.

The

a Candidate is calculated as follows:

Note: The Percentile of the Total shall NOT be an aggregate or average of the Percentile of individual subject. Percentile score is not the same as percentage of marks obtained.

Example: Suppose a test was held in 4 sessions of examinees as per details given below:(Allocation of Days and shifts were done randomly)

(a) Distribution of candidates were as follows: Session-1: Day-1 Shift-1, Session-2: Day-1 Shift-2, Session-3: Day-2 Shift-1 and Session-4: Day-2

In this method of scoring the HIGHEST RAW SCORE in each paper (irrespective of the raw scores) will be the 100 Percentile indicating that 100% of candidates have scores equal to or lesser than the highest scorer/ topper for that session.

Highest

The following is a further explanation of the interpretation of the raw scores and Percentile Score in Session-3 (Day-2 and Shift-1) with 41326 candidates who have taken the examination.

It

It

candidates have scored more

It

[(13102/41326

scored either EQUAL TO OR LESS THAN the candidate D (25 )*100] raw score)

It also indicates that remaining candidates have scored more than candidate D (25 raw score).

E 1.1034216 100 -15 Indicates that amongst those appeared, 1.1034216% have [(456/41326)* 100] scored either EQUAL TO OR LESS THAN the candidate E (-15 raw score)

It also indicates that remaining candidates have scored more than candidate E (-15 raw score)

STEP-BY-STEP PROCEDURE FOR NORMALIZATION AND PREPARATION OF RESULT:

Step-1: Distribution of Examinees in two shifts:

Candidates have to be distributed into two sessions randomly so that each session has approximately equal number of candidates. These two sessions would be as follows:

Session-1: Day-1 Shift-1, Session-2: Day-1 Shift-2

In the event of more number of days or less number of shifts, the candidates will be divided accordingly. This will ensure that there is no bias in the distribution of candidates who shall take the examination. Further, with a large population of examinees spread over the entire country the possibility of such bias becomes remote.

Step-2: Preparation of Results for each Session:

The examination results for each session would be prepared in the form of  Raw Scores

 Percentiles Scores of Total raw scores.

The Percentiles would be calculated for each candidate in the Session as follows: Let TP1 be the Percentile Scores of Total Raw Score of that candidate.

Total Percentile (TP1) : 100 X

No. of candidates appeared from the session

Step-3: Compilation of NTA score and Preparation of Result:

The Percentile scores for the Total Raw Score for all the sessions (Session-1: Day-1 Shift-1, Session-2: Day-1 Shift2) as calculated in Step-2 above would be merged and shall be called the NTA scores which will then be used for compilation of result and further processing for deciding the allocation.

In the events of the percentiles for the multi-shifts being dissimilar / unequal, the lowest will be the eligibility cutoff for that category for all candidates (i.e. all shifts).

For Example: In an the examination held in two shifts, if the 40% marks correspond to a Percentile score of 78 in Shift 1 and 79 in Shift 2, then all those equal to or above 78 percentiles (Percentile score of 100 to 78) in both shifts will become eligible in General Category. Similar method will be adopted for the other categories to determine eligibility cut-offs.

In case the examination is held in more number of shifts the same principle shall apply.

FORMAT OF THE CERTIFICATE FOR THE CANDIDATES UNDER PERSONS WITH BENCHMARK DISABILITY CATEGORY (PwBD)

NAME & ADDRESS OF THE INSTITUTE/HOSPITAL ISSUING THE CERTIFICATE

Certificate No. : Date:

CERTIFICATE FOR PERSONS WITH DISABILITIES

AffixRecent Passportsize

Attested Photograph here

This is to certify that Shri/Smt/Kum*) son/daughter* of Shri Age years, Registration No. is a case of Locomotor disability/Cerebral Palsy/Blindness/Low vision/Hearing impairment/Other disability* and has been suffering from degree of disability not less than % ( ). The details of his/her above mentioned disability is described below:

(IN CAPITAL LETTERS)

Note:-

1. This condition is progressive/non-progressive/likely to improve/not likely to improve.*

2. Re-assessment is not recommended/is recommended after a period of months/years.

3. The certificate is issued as per PwBD Act, 1995. * Strike out whichever is not applicable.

Countersigned by the Medical Superintendent/CMO/ Head of Hospital (With Seal)

Certificate regarding physical limitation to write in an examination

Certificate No. Dated

This is to certify that Mr./Ms. Aged Years, Son/Daughter of Mr./Mrs. R/o

, with AIEEA 2024 Application No. and AIEEA (PG) 2024 Roll No. ,has the following Disability (name of the Specified Disability) in (percentage) of (in Figures).

 Please tick on the “Specified Disability” (in words)

(Assessment may be done on the basis of Gazette of India. Extraordinary, Part-II, Section 3 Sub-section (ii), Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment) S.

1. Physical Disability Locomotor Disability

Visual Impairment

Hearing Impairment

Speech & Language Disability

2. Intellectual Disability

3. Mental Behaviour

4. Disability caused due to i. Chronic Neurological Conditions

ii. Blood disorder

5. Multiple Disabilities

a. Leprosy cured person, b. cerebral palsy, c. dwarfism, d. muscular dystrophy, e. acid attack victims.

a. blindness, b. low vision

a. deaf, b. hard of hearing

Permanent disability arising out of conditions such as laryngectomy or aphasia affecting one or more components of speech and language due to organic or neurological causes.

a.specific learning disabilities/perceptual disabilities: Dyslexia, Dysgraphia, Dyscalculia, Dyspraxia & Developmental Aphasia)

b. autism spectrum disorder

a. mental illness

a. multiple sclerosis

b. Parkinson’s disease

a. Haemophilia, b. Thalassemia, c. Sickle cell disease

More than one of the above specified disabilities including deaf blindness

This is to further certify that he/she has physical limitation which hampers his/her writing capabilities to write the Examination owing to his/her disability.

Signature

Chief Medical Officer/ Civil Surgeon/ Medical Superintendent Government Health Care Institution with Seal Affix Passport size Photograph

Name:

Note: In case any degree from a particular college/university is not considered for admission by an Agricultural University or any particular college/university on account of de-recognition by VCI/UGC, ICAR will not be responsible for admitting students of that college/university in the Universities not willing to admit such candidates.

Indicative and Tentative List *of Universities for Admission in Master Degree Programmes in Agriculture and Allied Science Subjects through AIEEA (PG)-2024 along with Contact Details of Registrars

S. No. Name of the university Registrar Ph. No. Registrar E-mail

1 Acharya N G Ranga Agricultural University, Administrative Office, Lam, Guntur, Andhra Pradesh - 522 034 (AP)

2 Acharya Narendra Dev University of Agriculture & Technology, Kumarganj, Ayodhya-224229 Uttar Pradesh

3 Agriculture University, Borkhera, PB No. 20 GPO Nayapura, Kota-324001 (Rajasthan)

4 Agriculture University, Mandor, Jodhpur- 342304 (Rajasthan)

5 Anand Agricultural University, Anand-388110 (Gujarat)

6 Assam Agricultural University, Jorhat-785013 (Assam)

7 Banda University of Agriculture and Technology, Chilla Road, Banda-210 001 (UP)

8 Bidhan Cchandra Krishi Vishwavidyalaya, Mohanpur, Nadia-741252 (West Bengal)

9 Bihar Agricultural University, Sabour, Sabour, Bhagalpur- 813210 (Bihar)

10

0863-2347101 registrarangrau@gmail.com

05270-262035 registrar.nd.15@gmail.com

0744-2321205 aukota2013@gmail.com

0291-2570711 registraraujdp@gmail.com

02692-261310 registrar@aau.in

0376-2340008 registrar@aau.ac.in

0519-2232312 registrar.buat@gmail.com

033-25878163 registrar@bckv.edu.in

0641-2452614 registrarbau2015@gmail.com

Agricultural University, Hisar-125004 (Haryana) 01662-234613 regi@hau.ac.in

14 CSK Himachal Pradesh Krishi Vishvavidyalaya, Palampur-176 062 (HP)

15 Dau Shri Vasudev Chandrakar Kamdhenu Vishwavidyalaya, Anjora, Durg, Dist.- Durg (C.G.) Pin Code - 491001

16 Dr. Balasaheb Sawant Konkan Krishi Vidyapeeth, Tal. Dapoli, Dist. Ratnagiri-415 712, (MS)

17 Dr. Panjabrao Deshmukh Krishi Vidyapeeth Akola, P.O. Krishi Nagar, Akola-444104 (MS)

01894-230383 registrar@hillagric.ac.in

07882-623465 registrarcgkv2012@gmail.com

02358-282065

0724-2258372

18 Dr. Y.S. Parmer University of Horticulture & 01792 -252219

regr.dbskkv@gov.in

registrar@pdkv.ac.in

registrar@yspuniversity.ac.in

Forestry, Nauni, Solan-173230 (HP)

19 Dr.Y.S.R Horticultural University, Post Box # 7, Venkataramannagudem-534 101, West Godavari District, Andhra Pradesh

20 Faculty of Fisheries, Kerala University of Fisheries and Ocean Studies, Kochi (Kerala)

21 G.B. Pant University of Agriculture & Technology, Pantnagar, USNagar-263145 (UK)

22 Guru Angad Dev Veterinary and Animal Sciences University, Firozepur Road, Ludhiana-141 004 Punjab

23 Indira Gandhi Krishi Vishwavidyalaya, Krishak Nagar, Raipur-492 012 Chhattisgarh

24 Jawahar Lal Nehru Krishi Vishwa Vidyalaya, Jabalpur, Krishi Nagar, Adhartal, Jabalpur- 482004 (MP)

08818-284311 registrar@drysrhu.edu.in

0484-2703782 registrar@kufos.ac.in

05944-233640

registrar_pantversity@rediffm ail.com

0161-2553343 registrar@gadvasu.in

0771-2442537 regigkv@gmail.com

0761-2681778

registrarjnkvv@gmail.com 25 Junagarh Agricultural University, Near Motibaugh, Vanthali Road, Junagadh-362001 (Gujarat)

29 Kerala Agricultural University, KAU P.O., Vellanikkara, Thrissur-680656 (Kerala)

30 Kerala Veterinary & Animal Sciences University, Pookode, Wayand

0487-2438011 registrar@kau.in

32 Maharana Pratap University of Agriculture & Technology, Udaipur (Rajasthan) 0294-2471302 registrar@mpuat.ac.in

33 Maharana Pratap Horticultural University, Anjanthali, Karnal-132001 (Haryana) 07015-998911 regi@mhu.ac.in

34 Maharashtra Animal & Fishery Sciences University, Futala Lake Road, Nagpur - 440 001 (MS) 0712-2511784

35 Mahatma Phule Krishi Vidyapeeth, Rahuri, Distt. Ahmednagar-413722 (MS) 02426-243226

36 Nanaji Deshmukh Veterinary Science University, South Civil Lines, Jabalpur -482001 (Madhya Pradesh)

0761-2620545

registrar@mafsu.in

registrar.mpkv@nic.in

registrarndvsujbp@gmail.com

37 Navsari Agricultural University, Navsari-396 450 (Gujarat)

38 Orissa University of Agriculture and Technology, Bhubaneswar-751003 (Odhisha)

39 Professor Jayashankar Agriculture University, Hyderabad-500 030 (Telangana)

40 Punjab Agricultural University, Ludhiana- 141004 (Punjab)

41 PV Narsimha Rao Telangana State University for Veterinary, Animal and Fishery Sciences, Rajendranagar, Hyderabad-500 030

42 Rajasthan University of Veterinary and Animal Sciences, Bijey Bhawan Palace Complex, Near Deen Dayal Upadhyay Circle, Bikaner-334001 (Rajasthan)

43 Rajmata Vijayaraje Scindia Krishi Vishwa Vidyalaya, Raja Pancham Singh Marg, Gwalior474002 (Madhya Pradesh)

44 Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel University of Agriculture & Technology, NH-58, Roorkee Road, Modipuram, Meerut-250110 (UP)

45 Sardarkrushinagar Dantiwada Agricultural University, Sardarkrushinagar - 385506, Dist : Banaskantha (Gujarat)

46 Sher-e- Kashmir University of Agricultural Sciences & Technology of Jammu, Main Campus Chatha, Jammu-180009, (J&K)

47 Sher-e-Kashmir University of Agricultural Sciences and Technology of Kashmir, Shalimar Campus, Srinagar-190025, (J&K)

48 Sri Karan Narendra Agriculture University Jobner303329, Jaipur (Rajasthan)

49 Sri Konda Laxman Telangana State Horticultural University, Rajendranagar, Hyderabad-500 030 (Telangana)

50 Sri Venkateswara Veterinary University, Dr. Y.S.R. Bhavan, Tirupati - 517 502 (AP)

51 Swami Keshwanand Rajasthan Agricultural University, Bikaner-334006 (Rajasthan)

52 Tamil Nadu Agricultural University, Coimbatore-641 003 Tamil Nadu

53 Tamil Nadu Dr. J. Jayalalithaa Fisheries University, First Line Beach Road, Nagapattinam-611 001 (Tamil Nadu)

54 Tamil Nadu Veterinary & Animal Science University, Madhavaram Milk Colony Campus Madhavaram, Chennai-600051 (Tamil Nadu)

02637-282823 registrar@nau.in

06742-397424

registrar@ouat.ac.in

0402-4002314 registrar@pjtsau.edu.in

01612-400955 registrar@pau.edu

040-24002114 telanganavetuniv@gmail.com

0151-2540028 regrajuvas@gmail.com

0751-2970519 registrar.rvskvv09@gmail.com

01212-2888525 registrarsvpmeerut@gmail.co m

02748-278226 registrar@sdau.edu.in

0191-2262012 registrar@skuast.org

0194-2461271

01425-254980

040-24014301

0877 2248894

0151-2250025

0422-6611201

04365-240088

044-25551584

registrar@skuastkashmir.ac.in

registrar@sknau.ac.in

registrar@skltshu.ac.in

registrarsvvutpt@yahoo.in

reg@raubikaner.org

registrar@tnau.ac.in

registrar@tnfu.ac.in

registrar@tanuvas.org.in

55 University of Agricultural Sciences, GKVK, Bellary Road, Bangalore-560 065 (Karnataka)

56 University of Agricultural Sciences, Krishi Nagar, Dharwad-580 005 (Karnataka)

57 University of Agricultural Sciences, Raichur584104 (Karnataka)

58 University of Horticultural Sciences, Udyanagiri, Bagalkot-587104 Karnataka

59 UP Pandit Deen Dayal Upadhyaya pashu Chikitsa Vigyan Vishwavidyalaya Evam Go Anusandhan Sansthan (DUVASU) Mathura Pin: 281001 (UP)

60 Uttar Banga Krishi Viswavidyalaya, PO Pundbari, Cooch Behar-736 165 West Bengal

61 Vasantrao Naik Marathwada Krishi Vidyapeeth, Parbhani-431402 (MS)

62 VCSG Uttarakhand Univ. Of Horticulture and Forestry, Bharsar-246123 (Uttarakhand)

63 West Bengal University of Animal & Fishery Sciences, 37 & 68, KB Sarani, Kolkata-700037 (West Bengal)

64 ICAR- Indian Veterinary Research Institute, Izatnagar, Bareilly -243122 (Uttar Pradesh)

65 ICAR-Central Institute of Fisheries Education, Panch Marg, Off. Yari Road, Versova, Andheri (west), Mumbai-400 061 (Maharashtra)

66 ICAR-Indian Agricultural Research Institute, Pusa, New Delhi-110012

67 ICAR-National Dairy Research Institute, Karnal -132001 (Haryana)

68 Faculty of Agricultural Science, Aligarh Muslim University, Aligarh-202 002 (UP)

69 Faculty of Agriculture, Institute of Agricultural Sciences, BHU, Varanasi-221005 (UP)

080-23330984

registrar@uasbangalore.edu.in

0836-2214420 registrar@uasd.in

08432-220157 registrar@uasraichur.edu.in

08354-230276 registrar@uhsbagalkot.edu.in

0565-2471178 registrarduvasu@gmail.com

03582-270588 registrarubkvv@gmail.com

02452-223801 reg_mau@rediffmail.com

01348-226070 registraruuhf@gmail.com

03325-563123 drsouravchandra1@gmail.com

0581-2301462 Jdadmin.ivri@icar.gov.in

022-26365198 sao.cife@cife.edu.in

011-25842390 Jd_admin@iari.res.in

0184-2259023 jda.ndri@icar.gov.in

0571-2700220 registrar.amu@amu.ac.in

0542-2307222 registrar@bhu.ac.in

70 Nagaland University, (SAS) Mediziphema, Lumani, Zunheboto Dist. Nagaland-798627 0369-2268270 registrar@nagalanduniversity. ac.in

71 Palli Siksha Bhavana, Visva-Bharati, Santineketan, Birbhum, West Bengal-731204

72 Central Agricultural University, Iroisemba, Imphal-795004 (Manipur)

73 Dr. Rajendra Prasad Central Agricultural University, Pusa, Samastipur - 848 125 (Bihar)

74 Rani Lakshmi Bai Central Agricultural University, NH-75, Near Pahuj Dam, Gwalior Road, Jhansi284003 (UP)

03463-261531 registrar@visva-bharati.ac.in

03852-410644 registrar.cau@gov.in

06274-240239 registrar@rpcau.ac.in

0510-2730555 registrar.rlbcau@gmail.com

*Thefinallistofuniversitiesfor admissionto Master’sdegree programmeswill be available at the timeof counselling.

CASTE CERTIFICATE FOR SCHEDULED CASTE/TRIBE CANDIDATE

1. This is to certify that Shri/Smt.*/Kumari*

Son/daughter * of Of village/town* in District/Division* of the State/Union Territory*

Belong to the Caste/Tribe* which is recognized as a Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribe* under :

*The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950

*The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order, 1950

*The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) (Union Territories) Order, 1951

*The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) (Union Territories) Order, 1951

{As amended by the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Lists (Modification Order) 1956, the Bombay Reorganization Act, 1960, the Punjab Reorganization Act 1966, the State of Himachal Pradesh Act, 1970, the North-Eastern Areas (Reorganisation) Act, 1971 and the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Orders (Amendment) Act, 1976}

*The Constitution (Jammu & Kashmir) Scheduled Castes Order, 1956;

*The Constitution (Andaman & Nicobar Islands) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1959, as amended by the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Orders (Amendment) Act 1976;

*The Constitution (Dadra and Nagar Haveli) Scheduled Castes Order, 1962;

*The Constitution (Dadra and Nagar Haveli) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1962;

*The Constitution (Pondicherry) Scheduled Castes Order, 1964;

*The Constitution (Uttar Pradesh) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1967;

*The Constitution (Goa, Daman and Diu) Scheduled Castes Order, 1968;

*The Constitution (Nagaland) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1970

*The Constitution (Sikkim) Scheduled Castes Order, 1978

*The Constitution (Sikkim) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1978

*The Constitution (Jammu and Kashmir) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1989

*The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Orders (Amendment) Act, 1990

*The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order Amendment Act, 1991

*The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order Second Amendment Act, 1991

2. This certificate is issued on the basis of the Scheduled Castes/Scheduled Tribes Certificate issued to Shri/Smt* ……………………………………father/mother* of Shri/Smt/Kumari ……………………………. Of ………………………. Village/ town*…………………… in District/Division*……………………… of the State/Union Territory* ……………………………….. who belongs to the …………………………..Caste/Tribe* which is recognized as a Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribe* in the State/Union Territory*

………………………… issued by the ……………………………………………………. Dated ……………………

3. Shri/Smt*/Kumari* …………………………………………… and/or* his/her family ordinarily reside(s) in village/town*

………………………………………….. of ………………….………………… District/Division* of the State/Union Territory of …………………………………

Signature …………………… ……

Designation……………………… (With seal of Office)

Place : … ………………… State

Date : Union Territory

NOTE: The term “Ordinarily resides” used here will have the same meaning as in Section 20 of the Representation of the Peoples Act, 1950.

*Please delete the words which are not applicable.

AUTHORITIES EMPOWERED TO ISSUE SCHEDULED CASTE/SCHEDULED TRIBE CERTIFICATES

{G.I. Dept. of Per. & Trg. O.M. No. 3012//88-Estt. (SCT), (SRD III) dated 24.04.1990}

The under mentioned authorities have been empowered to issue Caste Certificates of verification :

1. District Magistrate/Additional District Magistrate/Collector/Deputy Commissioner/ Additional Deputy Commissioner/Deputy Collector/First class Stipendiary Magistrate/Sub Divisional Magistrate/Taluka Magistrate/Executive Magistrate/Extra Assistant Commissioner.

2. Chief Presidency Magistrate/Additional Chief Presidency Magistrate/Presidency Magistrate.

3. Revenue Officer not below the rank of Tehsildar

4. Sub-Divisional Officer of the area where the candidate and/or his/her family normally resides

ANNEXURE-XV FORM OF CERTIFICATE TO BE PRODUCED BY OTHER BACKWARD CLASSES-NON CREAMY LAYER (OBC-NCL) APPLYINGFOR ADMISSION TO CENTRAL EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS (CEIs), UNDER THE GOVERNMENT OF INDIA

This is to certify that Shri/Smt./Kum.................................................................................Son/Daughter of Shri/Smt of Village / Town District/Division in the....................................................State belongs to the Community which is recognized as a backward class under:

(i) Resolution No.12011/68/93-BCC(C)dated10/09/93 published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary PartI Section INo186dated13/09/93.

(ii) Resolution No.12011/9/94-BCCdated19/10/94 published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary Part ISectionI No.163Dated20/10/94.

(iii) Resolution No.12011/7/95-BCCdated24/05/95published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary Part ISectionI No.88Dated25/05/95.

(iv) Resolution No.12011/96/94-BCCdated9/03/96.

(v) Resolution No.12011/44/96-BCCdated6/12/96 published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary Part ISectionI No.210Dated11/12/96.

(vi) ResolutionNo.12011/13/97-BCCdated03/12/97.

(vii) ResolutionNo.12011/99/94-BCCdated11/12/97.

(viii) ResolutionNo.12011/68/98-BCCdated27/10/99.

(ix) Resolutionno.12011/88/98-bccdated6/12/99 published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary Part ISectionINo. 270dated06/12/99.

(x) Resolution no.12011/36/99-bccdated04/04/2000 published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary Part ISectionI No 71dated04/04/2000.

(xi) Resolutionno.12011/44/99-bccDated21/09/2000 published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary Part ISectionI No.210dated21/09/2000.

(xii) Resolutionno.12015/9/2000-bccdated06/09/2001.

(xiii) Resolutionno.12011/1/2001-bccdated19/06/2003.

(xiv) Resolutionno.12011/4/2002-bccdated13/01/2004.

(xv) Resolution No. 12011/9/2004-BCC dated 16/01/2006.

(xvi) Resolution No. 12011/14/2004-BCC dated 12/03/ 2007.

(xvii) Resolution No.12011/16/2007-BCC dated 12/10/2007; Resolution No.12018/6/2005-BCC dated 30/07/2010; Resolution No. 12015/2/2007-BCC dated 18/08/2010; Resolution No. 12015/15/2008-BCC dated 16/06/2011; Resolution No.12015/13/2010BC-II dated 08/12/2011; Resolution No.12015/5/2011-BC-II dated 17/02/2014; Resolution No. 20012/129/2009-BC-II dated 04/03/2014.

Shri/Smt./Kum...............................................................and/or his family ordinarily reside(s) in the..............................................................District/Divisionof............................................................... State. This is also to certify tha the/she does not belong to the persons/sections (Creamy Layer) mentioned in Column3 of the Schedule to the Government of India, Department of Personnel & Training O.M.No.36012/22/93-Estt.(SCT) Dated08/09/93 which Is modified vide OM No.36033/1/2013Estt.(Res.) dated 13 September, 2017.

Dated:………...……………. District magistrate/ Deputy Commissioner, etc.

Seal

Note:

(a) Theterm‘Ordinarily’usedherewillhavethesamemeaningasinSection20oftheRepresentationofthePeople Act,1950.

(b) TheauthoritiescompetenttoissueCasteCertificatesareindicatedbelow:

(i) District Magistrate/Additional Magistrate/Collector/Deputy Commissioner/Additional Deputy Commissioner/ Deputy Collector/Ist Class Stipendiary Magistrate/Sub-Divisional Magistrate/Taluka Magistrate/ Executive Magistrate/Extra Assistant Commissioner (Not Below The Rank of Ist Class Stipendiary Magistrate).

(ii) Chief Presidency Magistrate/Additional Chief Presidency Magistrate/Presidency Magistrate.

(iii) Revenue Officer not below the rank of Tehsildar’ and

(iv) Sub-Divisional Officer of the area where the candidate and/or his family resides.

Declaration/undertaking-for OBC candidates only

I,.................................................................son/daughter of Shri resident of Village/Town/City ...................................... District ................................... State here by declare that I belong to the .................................. Community which is recognized as a Backward Class by the Government of India for the purpose of reservation in services as per orders contained in Department of Personnel and Training Office Memorandum No.36012/22/93-Estt.(SCT), dated8/9/1993. It is also declared that I do not belong to persons/Sections (Creamy Layer) mentioned in Column 3 of The Schedule to the above referred OfficeMemorandum,Dated8/9/1993, which is Modified vide Department of Personnel and Training Office Memorandum No.36033/1/2013Estt.(Res.) dated 13 September, 2017..

Place ..................................... Signatureof the Candidate

Date:...................

 Declaration/undertaking not signed by candidate will be rejected.

 False declaration will render the applicant liable for termination of registration at any time.

Creamy Layer Definition

OBC Creamy layer isdefined comprehensively at http://ncbc.nic.in/html/creamylayer.html

All candidates for the OBC reserved seats should make sure that they do not satisfy any of the creamy layer criteria as listed in the website. Some general exclusion for quick reference (no way comprehensive) are as follows.

1. Any of the parents holds a constitutional position in Govt. of India

2. Anyone of the parents is a class I officer.

3. Both the parents are class II officers.

4. Anyone of the parents is employed in an equivalent rank to class I officer or both parents equivalent to class II officer in a public sector, insurance companies, banks, universities or in other organizations.

5. Land holding son irrigated land are85% or more of the statutory ceiling area.

6. Parents in come is more than Rs.8 lakhs per year or Government of India directives applicable at the time of counseling.

Income and Asset Certificate to be produced by the Economically Weaker Section

SPONSORSHIP CERTIFICATE

DECLARATION BY THE EMPLOYER OF THE CANDIDATE (FOR IN-SERVICE CANDIDATES)

(i) Certified that the particulars filled by Mr./Shri.............................................................................son/ daughter of...........................................................................................in the application form have been verified and found correct.

(ii) The candidate will be granted deputation leave/study leave/extraordinary leave or he/she will be given a scholarship or stipend of the value of Rs. per month. On completion of the degree, he/she will be required to serve this department/institute/university for a period of. years.

(iii) If selected for admission, the candidate will be relieved to join the course on the date of start of session in the university when admitted.

(iv) If selected for the award of or other fellowship, there will be no objection for his receiving the scholarship and contingency amounts attached there to subject to the following conditions:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(v) Certified that I am competent to take the decision to sponsor him/her on the terms and conditions mentioned above/the decision to sponsor him/her on the above terms and conditions has been taken by and is being communicated under the direction of who is the competent authority.

(vi) This university/Institute/organization/department undertakes to pay dues outstanding against the candidate, if not paid by him.

(vii) Any other relevant information: SIGNATURE................................................................... DESIGNATION......................................................................

Employment status of in-service candidates

Letter of Undertaking for Using Own Scribe

I , a candidate with (name of the disability) appearing for the (name of the examination) bearing Roll No. at (name of the centre) in the District , (name of the State). My qualification is .

I do hereby state that (name of the scribe) will provide the service of scribe/reader/lab assistant for the undersigned for taking the aforesaid examination.

I do hereby undertake that his qualification is .

I further certify that the scribe whose photograph and particulars are mentioned below, is not COVID-19 + and a certificate to this effect from Competent Authority is enclosed to this letter.

Place: Date:

(Signature of the candidate with Disability)

Photograph of Scribe

(Self- Attested Photograph)

Name of Scribe ID of the Scribe ID Number

Certificate for person with specified disability covered under the definition of Section 2 (s) of the RPwD Act, 2016 but not covered under the definition of Section 2(r) of the said Act, i.e. persons having less than 40% disability and having difficulty in writing

1. This is to certify that, we have examined Mr/Ms/Mrs (name of the candidate), S/o of /D/o a resident of (Vill/PO/PS/District/State), aged………………….yrs, a person with (nature of disability/condition), and to state that he/she has limitation which hampers his/her writing capability owing to his/her above condition. He/ she requires support of scribe for writing the examination.

2. The above candidate uses aids and assistive device such as prosthetics & orthotics, hearing aid (name to be specified) which is/are essential for the candidate to appear at the examination with the assistance of scribe.

3. This certificate is issued only for the purpose of appearing in written examinations conducted by recruitment agencies as well as academic institutions and is valid upto...................(it is valid for maximum period of six months or less as may be certified by the medical authority)

(Signature & Name)

(Signature & Name)

(Signature & Name)

Name of Government Hospital/Health

Care Centre with Seal Place:

Date:

(Signature & Name)

Neurologist (if available)

Signature of Medical Authority

(Signature & Name) (Signature & Name)

Occupational Therapist (if available)

Other Expert as nominated By the Chairperson (if any)

Letter of Undertaking by the person with specified disability covered under the definition of Section 2 (s) of the RPwD Act, 2016 but not covered under the definition of Section 2(r) of the said Act, i.e. persons having less than 40% disability and having difficulty in writing

1. I , a candidate with (nature of disability/condition) appearing for the (name of the examination) bearing Roll No. at (name of the centre) in the District , (name of the State). My educational qualification is

2. I do hereby state that (name of the scribe) will provide the service of the scribe for the undersigned for taking the aforementioned examination.

3. I do hereby undertake that his qualification is In case, subsequently it is found that his qualification is not as declared by the undersigned and is beyond my qualification. I shall forfeit my right to the post or certificate/diploma/degree and claims relating thereto.

(Signature of the candidate)

(counter signature by the parent/guardian, if the candidate is minor)

Place:

Date:

TENTATIVE UNIVERSITY-WISE ICAR QUOTA SEATS AND EWS SEATS FOR THE PG PROGRAM(S)-2024-25

NR-Seats not received and may be available at the time of counselling.